RDA flash 2

Created by Jessicarios2004

Question or Hint Answer or Word
  1. A non aerosol topical anesthetic may be applied by the Da or RDA
  2. Two primary reasons for using topical anesthetic agents are: Relief of pain and anxiety
  3. Topical anesthetic is applied in the muco/buccal fold over the apex area of the operation for ___ anesthesia Infiltration
  4. A mobile tooth is a: Sign
  5. Cracking at the corner of the mouth is know as: Cheilitis
  6. The tab of tissue on the inside of the cheek just opposite the upper first molar is: The opening to the parotid salivary gland
  7. Removing tissue for the examination under a microscope is called: Biopsy
  8. Before administering N20 to the patient: He or she is instructed to take several deep breaths
  9. A patient's overjet is measured by: The horizonal distance the maxillary teeth protrude beyond the mandible
  10. A cross bite is:
  11. A class I malocclusion is: The posterior teeth and mandible are in a normal position but there are malpositioned anterior teeth.
  12. A class II malocclusion is: The posterior teeth and maxilla are in a protruded position in relationship to the mandible
  13. A class III malocclusion is: The posterior teeth and maxilla are in a retruded position in relationship to the mandible
  14. A class II elastic: Attaches the anterior of the maxillary appliance and posterior of the mandibular appliance
  15. Elastic orthodontic separators are placed: By a DA
  16. The following are not used for separators: Tie wires
  17. When placing a TP spring: First insert lingual side
  18. When removing separators care must be taken: To avoid injuring the interdental papillae
  19. A useful instrument for removing elastic separators is a: Sickle scaler
  20. T-P springs are a type of: Separator
  21. How long do elastic separators need to be left in place? 3-5 days
  22. An elastic separator is placed by a period of more than 8 hours
  23. Headgear should not be worn during: Sports activites
  24. When ligating with a wire tie, the tie wire should be: Bent at a 90 degree angle
  25. After twisting the wire ligature the " pigtail" should be cute to a length of approximately: 3 mm
  26. Ater the wire ligature has been cut the cut end ("pigtail") is bent: Gingivally
  27. A removable retainer should: 1.should not impinge soft tissue 2. seat completely to the soft tissue 3. fit securely without dislodging
  28. when placing head gear: Place one side first then the other
  29. What are the vital signs? 1. Blood pressure and pulse 2. Temperature 3. Respiration
  30. A mouth mirror is used for? 1. Light reflection 2. Retraction of soft tissues of the mouth
  31. It is possible to obtain an incorrect blood pressure reading by? 1. using the wrong size cuff 2. Placing the cuff to high on the arm 3. Taking visual reading instead of listening to the sounds
  32. A serviceable temporary filling should have the following characteristics? 1. Sealed margins 2. Appropriate contact points
  33. A matrix band placed incorrectly can cause? 1. Flat contours 2. Overhang 3. Tooth movement
  34. A sepecial type of retainer which can be placed from the lingual is called: Contra angle retainer
  35. What is not a type of cancer? Leukoplakia
  36. Mercury levels in the office be controlled by: 1. Storing scrap amalgam in a tightly sealed jar 2. keep all amalgam materials on an edged tray
  37. A Temp. crown should reproduce the following: 1. Mesio-distal length 2. Correct occlusal height 3. Buccal-lingual width 4. Contact points
  38. The best way to reduce the gag reflex on a patient during an impression is to: 1. Use adequate post dam 2. Have the patient breath through their nose 3. Use fast-set alginate
  39. The purpose of pulp testing is to: 1. Determine whether there are living nerves within the pulp 2. Aid in diagnosis of pulpitis
  40. Thermal sensitivity test may indicate that the pulp tissue is undergoing liquefaction and the reaction to the applied heat is: Increase pain
  41. A pulp tester is used to help determine the: Vitality of the dental pulp
  42. The patient may be premeditated to alleviate his apprehension and raise his threshold of pain with a type of medication Sedative
  43. A very low reading (0-1) on an electric vitality test indicates: Acute inflammation
  44. vitality of an unexposed pulp may be determined by: 1. Electrical pulp test 2. Application of cold 3. Application of heat
  45. The electrode on a vitalometer should be in contact with: Enamel
  46. Prior to pulp testing, the teeth should be: Dried
  47. The chemical symbol representing acidulated phosphate fluoride is: APF2 ( it's 'supposed' to be a little "2" - but this daft program won't let me!!!)
  48. The length of application for sodium fluoride applied topically is for: 4 Minutes
  49. Following a topical fluoride application, what instruction are given to the patient? To avoid food and liquid during the next 30 minutes
  50. An undesirable result of using waxed dental floss before topical application of fluoride is: Coating on the proximal surfaces
  51. Mottled enamel is associated with: Excessive amounts of fluoride in drinking water
  52. The recommended concentration of fluoride in community water supplies is: 1.0 ppm
  53. Application of topical fluoride is duty permitted by the: DA, direct supervision
  54. Research has shown that the fluorides are most effective in: Water
  55. When removing excess cement, a know in dental floss may be used: Through the interproximal only
  56. Excess cement should be removed: After is has hardened
  57. A class II temporary cement filling: Should be formed to tooth anatomy, having proximal contact and have sealed margins
  58. The least irritating of the dental cement listed is: Zinc-oxide-eugenol
  59. Sizing and cementation of temporary crowns may be performed by RDA under direct supervision
  60. When cementing temporary crowns: The amount of cement placed in the temporary depends on the type of crown
  61. The margin of a temporary crown should extend: 1 mm below the free gingival
  62. To decrease the setting time of zinc phosphate cement: The material is quickly incorporated
  63. A class II sedative restoration should: 1. Be placed in a dry cavity 2. Seal occlusal margins
  64. A temporary sedative dressing is placed: 1. To protect the dentin and pulp 2. Maintain contact and occlusion
  65. The dentist is on vacation and a patient comes to the office, having displaced a temporary dressing. you may: Appoint patient with another dentist immediately
  66. Which one of the following instruments would be the instrument of choice to remove an excess of temporary restoration? Explorer
  67. An "ideal" temporary sedative dressing: 1. seals tooth 2. Supports occlusal forces 3. Reproduces tooth contours 4. Prevents tooth movement
  68. To prepare the mouth to place the runbber dam you should: 1. Check contact areas of teeth to be isolated by passing dental floss through 2. check for alignment of teeth and missing teeth 3. Determine which teeth are to be isolated 4. Determine which tooth is to be the anchor tooth
  69. A correctly applied rubber dam will: 1. Increase the efficiency of the dental team 2. Provide the driest operating field possible 3. Provide soft tissue retraction 4. Provide patient control
  70. After removing the rubber dam, the next step is to: Check rubber dam and see that it is intact
  71. The preliminary diagnosis charting that the dental assistant performs includes: Physical and dental data
  72. Wharton's duct is located: Beneath the tongue
  73. Blood in the soft tissue is know as: Hematoma
  74. An abnormal wearing away of tooth substance due to mechanical process affecting the crown of teeth is indicative of: Abrasion
  75. Instrumentation for a mouth mirror inspection is: Mouth mirror, explorer and probe
  76. A progressive lesion of calcified dental tissue characterized by loss of teeth structure is: Caries
  77. What is the appearance of granulation tissue? White
  78. The first step in completing a patient record is: Patient history
  79. All of the following are performed during an oral inspection except: Determining sequence of dental needs
  80. Injury of the tissues of the body is the result of: Trauma
  81. Of those duties listed below, which cannot be performed by the DA under the direct supervision of the dentist? Mouth mirror inspection of the oral cavity
  82. The classification of caries on the occlusal two-thirds of a distal surface is: Class II
  83. A class II restoration includes the following surfaces: 1. Mesial 2. Distal 3.Occlusal
  84. General appraisal of your patient during visual observation would include: 1. Obesity 2. Perspiration
  85. Bite wing x-rays are used by the dentist to diagnose: Interproximal caries
  86. A good impression should include: 1. Palate 2. Frenum 3. Reflex areas 4. Tuberosities
  87. In order to correctly seat a lower alginate impression should have your patient: Raise their tongue after placement
  88. A granular alginate impression mix may be caused by: Improper water powder ratio
  89. Which of the following blood pressure readings would be cause for the GREATEST concern: 150/100
  90. You are in the operatory with your patient alone. The patient was given an injection of local anesthesia for a short operative procedure. You notice that the patient has broken out in a rash and says their skin itches. What might be wrong? Anaphylactic shock
  91. What would be the Best course of action to some someone having anaphylactic shock to local anesthesia. Inform the dentist and call a paramedic
  92. Your patient seems more nervous than usual during dental trearment, in the middle of the procedure they complain of a severe pain in their lower jaw. This patient has history of diabetes and heart problems. What might be wrong? Angina pectoris attack
  93. The appropriate treatment for a patient suffering from an asthma attack would include all of the following except: Have the patient breathe into a bag
  94. Which of the following may indicate overexposure to radiation? 1. Nausea and vomiting 2, skin rash 3. Loss of hair
  95. In checking the nitrous oxide/oxygen tanks prior to seeing a patient the assistant notices the tank gauge reads 200 psi. This reading would indicate the: Tank pressure has decreased from full sate
  96. The last procedure that should be performed just prior to cementation of a temporary crown is: Festoon the contact area
  97. The least irritating cement to use with a temporary crown is: Zinc oxide
  98. Which of the following medications might be taken by a patient who has suffered a stroke? Anticoagulants
  99. Which of the following might be signs of a patient in too deep sedation with nitrous oxide? Nausea
  100. The main nutrient found in fruits and vegetables are: Vitamin A, C, iron and riboflavin
  101. An excellent source of vitamin A is: Liver
  102. Symptoms of vitamin C deficiency are: Bruise easily
  103. A patient has just experienced syncope after an injection. what treatment could a dental assistant administer? Place patient in reclining position with their head lower than their feet
  104. The orthodontic facebow should be placed: One side at a time
  105. Acetone or fruity smelling breath, deep respirations, excessive thirst are symptoms of: Diabetic acidosis
  106. If the patient condition were to progress to complete circulatory collapse, the RDA would immediately administer which of the following? Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
  107. The symptoms described in the aove situation would indicate that the patient is suffering from: Heart attack
  108. In the above situation the INITIAL procedure would be to: Place patient in semi supine position & administer oxygen
  109. Orthodontic retainer instructions should include: 1. Brushing of the retainer teeth, soft tissue 2. Removal of retainer during sports
  110. What instructions should be given to a patient following an arch wire ligation procedure? 1. Oral hygiene instruction 2. Food to avoid 3. Warning of possible disconmfort
  111. To insure that all excess cement has been removed which of the following techniques should be used after cementing a gold restoration? 1. Exploration of the marginal & interproximal area with explorer 2. Inspection of the oral cavity with a clear mouth mirror with good illumination
  112. The RDA is legally responsible for: No entries in the chart for services performed
  113. Which of the following abrasives should be chosen for coronal polishing when the patients teeth display mild sensitivity? flour of pumice
  114. The complete health history of a patient should include: 1. Blood pressure reading 2. Record of chronic illnesses 3. chief dental complaints 4. Prescription and self prescribed drugs 5. History of exposure to ionizing radiation 6. Past sensitivity to medications
  115. A properly adapted impression tray should include: 1. The retromolar area 2. All teeth 3. Tissues in the vestibule 4. Frenum or muscle attachments
  116. When utilizing correct for-handed dentistry techniques, how should the dental assistant receive a cutting instrument? Extended little finger
  117. Once inserted, where are metal spring separators located in relation to the contact area? Occlusal and gingival to the contact area
  118. Indicate the correct sequence of steps for placing a PRFORMED aluminum temporary crown? 1. Measure mediodistal space at the contact area and select the crown 2. Try the crown and check the fit 3. Adjust the length of the crown 4. Adjust occlusion 5. Cement temporary crown
  119. The dentist has just completed periodontal surgery in the lower right quadrant and has extracted tooth #32, which was impacted. The RDA may: Place a periodontal dressing over the periodontal wound area
  120. A rubber dam is used for all of the following except to: Stabilize loose teeth
  121. Which of the statements are TRUE concerning the proper placement of a rubber dam clamp? 1. Stabilize dam around teeth 2. Retract the dam and tissues
  122. How should a rubber dam be removed from interproximal spaces? Clip intersptal rubber with scissors
  123. After checking the developer solution for proper temperature. the manufacturers directions for the time and temperature, and the proper functioning of the timer, the probable cause for light radiographic film would be: Weakened solution
  124. While examining the nitrous oxide/oxegyn tanks, the registered dental assistant notices that the oxegyn pressure gauge registers 15 psi. This is a sign that: The pressure of the oxygen gas has decreased from the normally full state
  125. What can be done to prevent the suture material from sticking to the periodontal dressing? Wipe petroleum jelly on the suture material after suture is placed
  126. Mercury fumes Oil-covered containers for amalgam scrap
  127. Inhalant particles produced during removal of old restorations An efficient evacuation system and use of masks by the dental team
  128. Pumice and polishing agents Flushing and aspirating devices
  129. Which of the following is characteristic of chronic inflammation of gingival tissue? Soft spongy consistency, bleeding readily
  130. Instructions to a patient with a dry socket include: 1.Application of cold every 30 min ( off and on) 2. Reminding patient to take prescribed antibiotics 3. Reminding patient to take prescribed analgesics 4. Rinsing with warm saline solution
  131. Constricted pupils suggest that the patient is: Under the influence of narcotics
  132. Current research on nitrous oxide administration would lead one to believe that: 1. Routine inhalation of exhaust gases may produce negative results in male and female 2. Females in the first trimester of pregnancy are at risk 3. Office should have gas removal equipment
  133. Immediately following the surgical removal and suturing of an impacted mandibular third molal, the RDA is requested to place a surgical sedative dressing over the wound. Which of the following should be done? Cover the wound with a thin layer of zinc oxide eugenol
  134. When placing a tofflemire matrix retainer, it is important that the slotted edge of the retainer is directed: Gingivally
  135. What is the first sign of gingival over-extension when placing a temporary crown? Blanching (tissue white)
  136. When used in orthodontic treatment, a positioner is: An elastic type retainer worn following removal of appliance
  137. How should the patient be advised to wear headgear? Insert one side first, then insert the other
  138. Cavity varnish should be applied With a cotton pellet
  139. In drying the root canal with an absorbent paper point, how is the proper length of the point determined? By use of an x-ray film measurement

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