When you're ready to print, just click this button: Make Print-Friendly

RDA QUIZ

Created by Jessicarios2004

  1.  
    What is the amoxicillin dosage and when should the patient take it?
    A. 1000 mg 1hr. after dental work B. 1000 mg 1hr, before and 1000 mg 1hr. after dental work C. 2000 mg 1hr. after dental work D. 2000 mg1hr. before dental work
  2.  
    Cavity Classification for anterior teeth proximal surfaces is _______.
    A. Class I B. Class III C. Class II D. Class IV
  3.  
    Labial Frenum attaches the upper lip to the anterior surface of the maxillary gingiva.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  4.  
    After the premature loss of primary tooth, which special fixed appliance is worn to maintain a space for the permanent tooth?
    A. Bracket B. Space maintainers C. Headgear D. Activator
  5.  
    The patient records are: X-Rays, medical/dental health history form diagnostic models, personal information and _______.
    A. Invice B. Informed consents C. Patient's chart D. None of the above
  6.  
    _____ means that the tooth is in a distal to normal position.
    A. Linguoversion B. Mesioversion C. None of the above D. Distoversion
  7.  
    _____ means that the tooth is tipped toward the lip or cheek.
    A. Labioversion B. Torsoversion C. Transversion D. Linguoversion
  8.  
    The system for calling off the condition of the mouth starts from tooth #______ and goes down tooth #______ for the lower arch and finishes at tooth #32.
    A. #16, #17 B. #16, #32 C. #1, #17 D. #1, #32
  9.  
    Upper left of the chart is patient's _____.
    A. Maxillary Right B. Maxillary Left C. Mandibular Right D. Mandibular Left
  10.  
    _____ are placed in the contact area, forcing the teeth to spread to accommodate the orthodontic bands.
    A. Ligatures B. Brackets C. Separators D. Springs
  11.  
    Pointed side of the wedge is placed towards the _______.
    A. Gingival surface B. Separtors C. Occlusal surface D. Gum
  12.  
    when the vertical overlap of the maxillary teeth is greater than the incisor one third of the mandibular anterior teeth, this is called?
    A. Overjet B. Overbite C. Underbite D. Crossbite
  13.  
    An abnormal horizontal distance between the labial surface of the mandibular anterior teeth and the labial surface of the maxillary anterior teeth is called?
    A. overjet B. Open bite C. Cross bite D. None of the above
  14.  
    which of the following is not considered a removable appliance?
    A. Headgear B. Palatal expansion C. Retainer
  15.  
    What is the normal human body temperature?
    A. 98.6 B. 68.6 C. 89.6 D. 82.6
  16.  
    Factors that cause pulse fluctuations are ______.
    A. Body size B. All off the above C. Age D. Physical activities E. Stress
  17.  
    Hyperventilation is high blood pressure.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  18.  
    Systolic pressure is the higher number and diastolic lower number.is the
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  19.  
    Which factors can initiate malformation in the unborn child.
    A. Drugs B. All of the above C. Genetics D. Environment E. infections
  20.  
    Fetal alcohol symptoms in an infant are a result of the mother.
    A. Contracting infections B. Being exposed to measles C. Persisting in alcohol consumptions D. None of the above
  21.  
    What happens when patient's blood pressure reading is high?
    A. Retake the BP after 15 min B. Reschedule the appointment C. Give patient blood pressure medication D. Call 911
  22.  
    Molar & premolar proximal surface cavities are called ______.
    A. Class I B. Class III C. None of the above D. Class II
  23.  
    Enamel-forming cells are called?
    A. Odontoblasts B. Cementoblasts C. Ameloblasts D. none of the above
  24.  
    What is the last development stage before eruption?
    A. Initiation B. Calcification C. Attrition D. proliferation
  25.  
    What is the final stage of the life cycle of the tooth?
    A. Attrition B. Proliferation C. Initiation D. Calcification
  26.  
    Class Iv cavities are due to ______.
    A. Not flossing every day B. Cavities in between teeth C. Attrition D. All of the above
  27.  
    The hardest living substance is the body is?
    A. Enamel B. Dentin C. Cementum D. None of the above
  28.  
    Primary teeth may erupt with a covering over the enamel called Nasmyth's membrane.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  29.  
    Cementum is the bone-like tissue that covers the root portion of the tooth,
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  30.  
    Alveolar Bone is composed of ______ that protects the teeth.
    A. Spongy bone B. Pulp C. Ligament D. Hard bone
  31.  
    Enamel is organic and it can regenerate itself.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  32.  
    The pulp is partially made from ______ cells from which connective tissue evolves.
    A. Pulpitis B. Fibroblasts C. Dentinal D. None of the above
  33.  
    The pulp is damaged due to an injury, the tissue may become inflamed, causing.
    A. Ulcer B. Pulpitis C. Fibroblasts D. all of the above
  34.  
    The ______ consists of portions of the tooth structure, supporting hard and soft dental tissues, and the alveolar bone.
    A. Periodontium B. Enamel C. Alveolu D. Cementum
  35.  
    Mass of blood in the tissue is called?
    A. Ulcer B. Hematoma C. Vesicle D. Fistula
  36.  
    Clinical examination consists of visual inspection of the patient's hard and soft tissue, palpation, checking TMJ, percussion which is ______ process.
    A. Listening B. Palpation C. All of the above D. Tapping
  37.  
    Reversible pulpitis means the pulpal inflammation that may NOT be able to heal itself.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  38.  
    What is the advantages of using a rubber dam?
    A. All of the above B. Provides better access C. Provides better visibility D. Prevents moisture
  39.  
    What kind of safety precaution can be applied when placing a rubber dam clamp on the tooth.
    A. Use 2x2 B. Tie a 12" piece of floss on the clamp C. Use Rubber Dam Lubricant D. None of the above
  40.  
    On a dental radiograph, the radiopaque line, or _______ represents the thin compact alveolar bone lining the socket.
    A. Alveolar crest B. Lamina dura C. Periodontal ligament D. Alveolar process
  41.  
    What is the difference between gingivectomy vs gingivoplasy?
    A. Gingivectomy is the removal of soft tissue B. gingivoplasty is the re-shaping of the tissue C. All of the above D. gingivectomy is done when periodontal pockets are untreatable
  42.  
    ______ mucosa flows into the tissue of the cheek, lips, and inside the floor of the mandible.
    A. Circular B. Apical C. Alveolar
  43.  
    Free gingiva is also known as _______.
    A. Gingival sulcus B. Stippled C. Marginal D. Attached
  44.  
    The mucogingival junction is the line of demarcation between the ______ gingiva and _______ mucosa.
    A. Attached, Alveolar B. Free, Marginal C. Interdental, Alveolar D. None of the above
  45.  
    The space between the unattached gingiva and the tooth is the _______.
    A. Attached gingiva B. Interdental gingiva C. Marginal gingiva D. Gingival sulcus
  46.  
    What is the required length when placing a periodontal dressing?
    A. Must extend at least one tooth on either side of the surgical site B. At least 7 mm C. The shorter the better D. It should extend at least 2 teeth on either side of the surgical site
  47.  
    In a healthy mouth, the gingival sulcus space would not exceed _______ millimeters in depth.
    A. 3-5 B. 2-3 C. 3-4 D. 4-5
  48.  
    Which dental specialty deals with the recognition, prevention, and treatment of malalignment and irregularities of the teeth, jaw and face.
    A. Endodontics B. orthodontics C. Periodontics D. Oral Surgery
  49.  
    The orthodontic team consists of the _________.
    A. All of the above B. Dentist C. Receptionist and business staff D. Laboratory technician
  50.  
    When placing a periodontal dressing RDA must do the following _________.
    A. Irrigate and dry the surgical site with 2X2 gauze B. Apply Vaseline on sutures C. Make sure the dressing doesn't extend no more than 2 mm apically or occlusally D. All of the above
  51.  
    Which of the following is an ideal occlusion relationship?
    A. Maxillary and mandibular teeth are in maximum contact and normally spaced B. Class II C. Class III D. None of the above
  52.  
    The established system for classifying malocclusion is called ______ classification.
    A. Angle's B. Class I C. Pasteur's D. None of the above
  53.  
    When performing coronal polishing, RDAs should _______.
    A. Never press the cup continuously against the tooth B. All of the above C. avoid polishing decalcified areas D. Use pastes without fluoride when preparing for acid etching
  54.  
    What is the treatment for Anaphylactic shock?
    A. Apply oxygen B. Administer Epinephrine injection C. Ask when did the patient eat D. Both A and B are correct
  55.  
    What are the symptoms of anaphylactic shock?
    A. Both A and B are correct B. Skin reaction within 2-5 min C. Respiratory reaction D. Chest pain that radiates to left shoulder and arm
  56.  
    What are the symptoms for syncope?
    A. All of the above B. Fainting C. Anxiety D. Dizziness
  57.  
    If patient lost vital signs what is it the first thing one needs to do before administering CPR?
    A. Both B and C are correct B. Find someone who can administer CPR C. Call 911 first if there is no one to call D. Tell someone to call E. Both A and B are correct
  58.  
    Nonmaleficence is an ethical principle that states _________.
    A. Professional have a duty to protect the patient from short- or long-term harm B. Keep skill current C. Know one's limitations and when to refer to a specialist D. All of the above
  59.  
    Veracity is truthfulness and it protects from overbilling, waiver of copay, and misrepresntation
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  60.  
    When a wall is not available, the operator should be standing at least _______.
    A. At least 6-8 feet from x-ray head B. 2 feet from the x-ray head C. At least 10 feet from the x-ray head D. None of the above
  61.  
    What are the real Hazards of radiation?
    A. Primary radiation B. Secondary radiation C. A and B are correct D. Chemical hazards
  62.  
    What color is the oxygen storage cylinder?
    A. Green B. Yellow C. Red D. Blue
  63.  
    Broaches are used to ______.
    A. Remove the pulpal tissue B. Enlarge canals of the tooth C. Dry the canals
  64.  
    Paper points need to remain in the canal for at least ______.
    A. 1 minute B. 3 minutes C. A and B are correct D. None of the above
  65.  
    HIV virus appears to attach itself to a cell in the immune system called T-4 Lymphocyte.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  66.  
    Which custom-made matrix is designed and used on primary teeth?
    A. tofflemire B. T-band C. Spot-welded D. Stainless steel crown
  67.  
    If the band of the matrix is positioned left, then it can be used for the _______ quadrant(s).
    A. A and B are correct B. Upper left quadrant C. Lower right quadrant D. Upper right quadrant
  68.  
    For the young permanent teeth, a pulpotomy maintains pulp vitality and allows enough time for the root end to develop and close. In these cases, the treatment is called?
    A. Apexogensis B. Direct pulp capping C. Pulpectomy D. Avulsed
  69.  
    Which condition occurs when the teeth are forcibly driven into alveolus so the only a portion of the crown is visible?
    A. Displaced tooth B. Traumatic intrusion C. Avulsed tooth D. None of the above
  70.  
    Health care workers should be screened by a skin for active TB upon employment and at least yearly during employment.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  71.  
    Dentists should report suspicious signs of child abuse to a ________.
    A. Social service agency B. Local police department C. Child protective services D. All of the above
  72.  
    Which of the following apply to sealants?
    A. Prevent tooth decay B. It's cosmetic C. A and B are correct D. It's a procedure to treat cavities
  73.  
    Sealants are placed and the patient is instructed to have them checked once every ______.
    A. 2 years B. 5 years C. None of the above D. 6 months- a year
  74.  
    The enamel surface is etched in preparation for sealant. Application time varies from _____.
    A. 30-60 seconds B. 30-90 seconds C. 5 minutes D. 15-30 seconds
  75.  
    _____ sealant material is known as self-cure or auto polymerization.
    A. Light-cured B. Chemically cured C. Surgical D. Mechanical
  76.  
    The height when holding the curing light is _______ mm directly above the occlusal surface.
    A. 2 B. 6 C. 4 D. 8
  77.  
    Keeping the sealant procedure area dry is accomplished by?
    A. Asking the patient to keep the tongue still B. Placing cotton rolls on both the buccal and lingual of the working tooth C. All of the above D. Using rubber dam
  78.  
    The application of Pit & Fissure sealant is performed by _______.
    A. A dentist B. RDAEF C. Dental Assistant D. A, B and D E. Registered Dental Hygienist (RDHEF)
  79.  
    In 1992, OSHA established the bloodborne pathogens standard, which mandates that facilities much do which of the following?
    A. All the above B. Protect workers from infection hazards C. Protect workers from chemical hazards D. Protect workers from physical hazards
  80.  
    Which material dominates the field of aesthetic restorations?
    A. Glass ionomer B. Bonding agents C. Polycarboxylate D. Composite
  81.  
    ____ gloves are used for patient treatment whenever the dental assistant anticipates contract with saliva or blood.
    A. Utility B. Nitrile C. Vinyl D. Poly Nitrile
  82.  
    ____ dental cement cures by a chemical reaction between two materials.
    A. Self-curing B. Light curing C. Non curing D. Heat-curing
  83.  
    Which of the following is a high-level disinfectant?
    A. Alcohol B. Glutaraldehyde C. Iodophor D. All the above
  84.  
    A _____ is used to condense the base into place on the floor of the cavity.
    A. Explorer B. Spoon excavator C. Plastic filing D. large spoon excavator
  85.  
    Cavity liners are placed on the _____ of the cavity preparation.
    A. On the pulp B. Axial wall C. Gingival wall D. Deepest portion
  86.  
    Which dental dam instrument has a working end that is sharp projection used to provide holes in the dam?
    A. Clamp B. Forceps C. Punch D. Pliers
  87.  
    Palpectomy is the same as RCT
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  88.  
    Dental dam clamps are designed to be used on a specific tooth. One of the basic parts of the clamp is the arched metal joining the two jaws of the clamp together, called the ______.
    A. Point B. Bow C. Wings D. Hole
  89.  
    The most used matrix in an amalgam restoration is the ______.
    A. Strip B. Shell C. All the above D. Tofflemire
  90.  
    Which part of the tofflemire matrix retainer holds the ends of the matrix band in place in the diagonal slot?
    A. Head B. Short knob C. Sliding body D. None of the above
  91.  
    After the tofflemire matrix is assembled and positioned on the tooth, the band of the matrix should not extend more than _____ mm beyond the gingival margin.
    A. 2 B. 1.75 C. None of the above D. 1
  92.  
    Occlusal edge of the tofflemire matrix band should extend no more than ____ mm above the highest cusp.
    A. 1 B. 1.5 C. none of the above D. 2
  93.  
    BSI is a system requiring wearing personal protective equipment to prevent contact with all body fluids.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  94.  
    Employers must protect their employees from exposure to blood and OPIM during the time when employees are at work.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  95.  
    When a disinfecting solution meets all the claims listed and safety concerns are notes, the FDA will assign an EPA number that must appear on the label of the solution.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  96.  
    Microorganisms may be missed because they appear as a mist or dry clear on the surface that are touched.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  97.  
    When removing protective clothing, OSHA states that special care is to be taken with items that are considered potentially infectious.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  98.  
    _____ is the principal professional organization for dentistry in the US.
    A. CDC B. OSHA C. US public health services D. ADA
  99.  
    Name the agency that is part of the US public health services, a division of the US department of health and human services, and a source of many regulations.
    A. OSHA B. OPIM C. CDC D. ADA
Answer Key
Hide Answer Key

RDA QUIZ (Answer Key)

Created by Jessicarios2004

  1.  
    What is the amoxicillin dosage and when should the patient take it?
    A. 1000 mg 1hr. after dental work B. 1000 mg 1hr, before and 1000 mg 1hr. after dental work C. 2000 mg 1hr. after dental work D. 2000 mg1hr. before dental work
  2.  
    Cavity Classification for anterior teeth proximal surfaces is _______.
    A. Class I B. Class III C. Class II D. Class IV
  3.  
    Labial Frenum attaches the upper lip to the anterior surface of the maxillary gingiva.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  4.  
    After the premature loss of primary tooth, which special fixed appliance is worn to maintain a space for the permanent tooth?
    A. Bracket B. Space maintainers C. Headgear D. Activator
  5.  
    The patient records are: X-Rays, medical/dental health history form diagnostic models, personal information and _______.
    A. Invice B. Informed consents C. Patient's chart D. None of the above
  6.  
    _____ means that the tooth is in a distal to normal position.
    A. Linguoversion B. Mesioversion C. None of the above D. Distoversion
  7.  
    _____ means that the tooth is tipped toward the lip or cheek.
    A. Labioversion B. Torsoversion C. Transversion D. Linguoversion
  8.  
    The system for calling off the condition of the mouth starts from tooth #______ and goes down tooth #______ for the lower arch and finishes at tooth #32.
    A. #16, #17 B. #16, #32 C. #1, #17 D. #1, #32
  9.  
    Upper left of the chart is patient's _____.
    A. Maxillary Right B. Maxillary Left C. Mandibular Right D. Mandibular Left
  10.  
    _____ are placed in the contact area, forcing the teeth to spread to accommodate the orthodontic bands.
    A. Ligatures B. Brackets C. Separators D. Springs
  11.  
    Pointed side of the wedge is placed towards the _______.
    A. Gingival surface B. Separtors C. Occlusal surface D. Gum
  12.  
    when the vertical overlap of the maxillary teeth is greater than the incisor one third of the mandibular anterior teeth, this is called?
    A. Overjet B. Overbite C. Underbite D. Crossbite
  13.  
    An abnormal horizontal distance between the labial surface of the mandibular anterior teeth and the labial surface of the maxillary anterior teeth is called?
    A. overjet B. Open bite C. Cross bite D. None of the above
  14.  
    which of the following is not considered a removable appliance?
    A. Headgear B. Palatal expansion C. Retainer
  15.  
    What is the normal human body temperature?
    A. 98.6 B. 68.6 C. 89.6 D. 82.6
  16.  
    Factors that cause pulse fluctuations are ______.
    A. Body size B. All off the above C. Age D. Physical activities E. Stress
  17.  
    Hyperventilation is high blood pressure.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  18.  
    Systolic pressure is the higher number and diastolic lower number.is the
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  19.  
    Which factors can initiate malformation in the unborn child.
    A. Drugs B. All of the above C. Genetics D. Environment E. infections
  20.  
    Fetal alcohol symptoms in an infant are a result of the mother.
    A. Contracting infections B. Being exposed to measles C. Persisting in alcohol consumptions D. None of the above
  21.  
    What happens when patient's blood pressure reading is high?
    A. Retake the BP after 15 min B. Reschedule the appointment C. Give patient blood pressure medication D. Call 911
  22.  
    Molar & premolar proximal surface cavities are called ______.
    A. Class I B. Class III C. None of the above D. Class II
  23.  
    Enamel-forming cells are called?
    A. Odontoblasts B. Cementoblasts C. Ameloblasts D. none of the above
  24.  
    What is the last development stage before eruption?
    A. Initiation B. Calcification C. Attrition D. proliferation
  25.  
    What is the final stage of the life cycle of the tooth?
    A. Attrition B. Proliferation C. Initiation D. Calcification
  26.  
    Class Iv cavities are due to ______.
    A. Not flossing every day B. Cavities in between teeth C. Attrition D. All of the above
  27.  
    The hardest living substance is the body is?
    A. Enamel B. Dentin C. Cementum D. None of the above
  28.  
    Primary teeth may erupt with a covering over the enamel called Nasmyth's membrane.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  29.  
    Cementum is the bone-like tissue that covers the root portion of the tooth,
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  30.  
    Alveolar Bone is composed of ______ that protects the teeth.
    A. Spongy bone B. Pulp C. Ligament D. Hard bone
  31.  
    Enamel is organic and it can regenerate itself.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  32.  
    The pulp is partially made from ______ cells from which connective tissue evolves.
    A. Pulpitis B. Fibroblasts C. Dentinal D. None of the above
  33.  
    The pulp is damaged due to an injury, the tissue may become inflamed, causing.
    A. Ulcer B. Pulpitis C. Fibroblasts D. all of the above
  34.  
    The ______ consists of portions of the tooth structure, supporting hard and soft dental tissues, and the alveolar bone.
    A. Periodontium B. Enamel C. Alveolu D. Cementum
  35.  
    Mass of blood in the tissue is called?
    A. Ulcer B. Hematoma C. Vesicle D. Fistula
  36.  
    Clinical examination consists of visual inspection of the patient's hard and soft tissue, palpation, checking TMJ, percussion which is ______ process.
    A. Listening B. Palpation C. All of the above D. Tapping
  37.  
    Reversible pulpitis means the pulpal inflammation that may NOT be able to heal itself.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  38.  
    What is the advantages of using a rubber dam?
    A. All of the above B. Provides better access C. Provides better visibility D. Prevents moisture
  39.  
    What kind of safety precaution can be applied when placing a rubber dam clamp on the tooth.
    A. Use 2x2 B. Tie a 12" piece of floss on the clamp C. Use Rubber Dam Lubricant D. None of the above
  40.  
    On a dental radiograph, the radiopaque line, or _______ represents the thin compact alveolar bone lining the socket.
    A. Alveolar crest B. Lamina dura C. Periodontal ligament D. Alveolar process
  41.  
    What is the difference between gingivectomy vs gingivoplasy?
    A. Gingivectomy is the removal of soft tissue B. gingivoplasty is the re-shaping of the tissue C. All of the above D. gingivectomy is done when periodontal pockets are untreatable
  42.  
    ______ mucosa flows into the tissue of the cheek, lips, and inside the floor of the mandible.
    A. Circular B. Apical C. Alveolar
  43.  
    Free gingiva is also known as _______.
    A. Gingival sulcus B. Stippled C. Marginal D. Attached
  44.  
    The mucogingival junction is the line of demarcation between the ______ gingiva and _______ mucosa.
    A. Attached, Alveolar B. Free, Marginal C. Interdental, Alveolar D. None of the above
  45.  
    The space between the unattached gingiva and the tooth is the _______.
    A. Attached gingiva B. Interdental gingiva C. Marginal gingiva D. Gingival sulcus
  46.  
    What is the required length when placing a periodontal dressing?
    A. Must extend at least one tooth on either side of the surgical site B. At least 7 mm C. The shorter the better D. It should extend at least 2 teeth on either side of the surgical site
  47.  
    In a healthy mouth, the gingival sulcus space would not exceed _______ millimeters in depth.
    A. 3-5 B. 2-3 C. 3-4 D. 4-5
  48.  
    Which dental specialty deals with the recognition, prevention, and treatment of malalignment and irregularities of the teeth, jaw and face.
    A. Endodontics B. orthodontics C. Periodontics D. Oral Surgery
  49.  
    The orthodontic team consists of the _________.
    A. All of the above B. Dentist C. Receptionist and business staff D. Laboratory technician
  50.  
    When placing a periodontal dressing RDA must do the following _________.
    A. Irrigate and dry the surgical site with 2X2 gauze B. Apply Vaseline on sutures C. Make sure the dressing doesn't extend no more than 2 mm apically or occlusally D. All of the above
  51.  
    Which of the following is an ideal occlusion relationship?
    A. Maxillary and mandibular teeth are in maximum contact and normally spaced B. Class II C. Class III D. None of the above
  52.  
    The established system for classifying malocclusion is called ______ classification.
    A. Angle's B. Class I C. Pasteur's D. None of the above
  53.  
    When performing coronal polishing, RDAs should _______.
    A. Never press the cup continuously against the tooth B. All of the above C. avoid polishing decalcified areas D. Use pastes without fluoride when preparing for acid etching
  54.  
    What is the treatment for Anaphylactic shock?
    A. Apply oxygen B. Administer Epinephrine injection C. Ask when did the patient eat D. Both A and B are correct
  55.  
    What are the symptoms of anaphylactic shock?
    A. Both A and B are correct B. Skin reaction within 2-5 min C. Respiratory reaction D. Chest pain that radiates to left shoulder and arm
  56.  
    What are the symptoms for syncope?
    A. All of the above B. Fainting C. Anxiety D. Dizziness
  57.  
    If patient lost vital signs what is it the first thing one needs to do before administering CPR?
    A. Both B and C are correct B. Find someone who can administer CPR C. Call 911 first if there is no one to call D. Tell someone to call E. Both A and B are correct
  58.  
    Nonmaleficence is an ethical principle that states _________.
    A. Professional have a duty to protect the patient from short- or long-term harm B. Keep skill current C. Know one's limitations and when to refer to a specialist D. All of the above
  59.  
    Veracity is truthfulness and it protects from overbilling, waiver of copay, and misrepresntation
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  60.  
    When a wall is not available, the operator should be standing at least _______.
    A. At least 6-8 feet from x-ray head B. 2 feet from the x-ray head C. At least 10 feet from the x-ray head D. None of the above
  61.  
    What are the real Hazards of radiation?
    A. Primary radiation B. Secondary radiation C. A and B are correct D. Chemical hazards
  62.  
    What color is the oxygen storage cylinder?
    A. Green B. Yellow C. Red D. Blue
  63.  
    Broaches are used to ______.
    A. Remove the pulpal tissue B. Enlarge canals of the tooth C. Dry the canals
  64.  
    Paper points need to remain in the canal for at least ______.
    A. 1 minute B. 3 minutes C. A and B are correct D. None of the above
  65.  
    HIV virus appears to attach itself to a cell in the immune system called T-4 Lymphocyte.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  66.  
    Which custom-made matrix is designed and used on primary teeth?
    A. tofflemire B. T-band C. Spot-welded D. Stainless steel crown
  67.  
    If the band of the matrix is positioned left, then it can be used for the _______ quadrant(s).
    A. A and B are correct B. Upper left quadrant C. Lower right quadrant D. Upper right quadrant
  68.  
    For the young permanent teeth, a pulpotomy maintains pulp vitality and allows enough time for the root end to develop and close. In these cases, the treatment is called?
    A. Apexogensis B. Direct pulp capping C. Pulpectomy D. Avulsed
  69.  
    Which condition occurs when the teeth are forcibly driven into alveolus so the only a portion of the crown is visible?
    A. Displaced tooth B. Traumatic intrusion C. Avulsed tooth D. None of the above
  70.  
    Health care workers should be screened by a skin for active TB upon employment and at least yearly during employment.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  71.  
    Dentists should report suspicious signs of child abuse to a ________.
    A. Social service agency B. Local police department C. Child protective services D. All of the above
  72.  
    Which of the following apply to sealants?
    A. Prevent tooth decay B. It's cosmetic C. A and B are correct D. It's a procedure to treat cavities
  73.  
    Sealants are placed and the patient is instructed to have them checked once every ______.
    A. 2 years B. 5 years C. None of the above D. 6 months- a year
  74.  
    The enamel surface is etched in preparation for sealant. Application time varies from _____.
    A. 30-60 seconds B. 30-90 seconds C. 5 minutes D. 15-30 seconds
  75.  
    _____ sealant material is known as self-cure or auto polymerization.
    A. Light-cured B. Chemically cured C. Surgical D. Mechanical
  76.  
    The height when holding the curing light is _______ mm directly above the occlusal surface.
    A. 2 B. 6 C. 4 D. 8
  77.  
    Keeping the sealant procedure area dry is accomplished by?
    A. Asking the patient to keep the tongue still B. Placing cotton rolls on both the buccal and lingual of the working tooth C. All of the above D. Using rubber dam
  78.  
    The application of Pit & Fissure sealant is performed by _______.
    A. A dentist B. RDAEF C. Dental Assistant D. A, B and D E. Registered Dental Hygienist (RDHEF)
  79.  
    In 1992, OSHA established the bloodborne pathogens standard, which mandates that facilities much do which of the following?
    A. All the above B. Protect workers from infection hazards C. Protect workers from chemical hazards D. Protect workers from physical hazards
  80.  
    Which material dominates the field of aesthetic restorations?
    A. Glass ionomer B. Bonding agents C. Polycarboxylate D. Composite
  81.  
    ____ gloves are used for patient treatment whenever the dental assistant anticipates contract with saliva or blood.
    A. Utility B. Nitrile C. Vinyl D. Poly Nitrile
  82.  
    ____ dental cement cures by a chemical reaction between two materials.
    A. Self-curing B. Light curing C. Non curing D. Heat-curing
  83.  
    Which of the following is a high-level disinfectant?
    A. Alcohol B. Glutaraldehyde C. Iodophor D. All the above
  84.  
    A _____ is used to condense the base into place on the floor of the cavity.
    A. Explorer B. Spoon excavator C. Plastic filing D. large spoon excavator
  85.  
    Cavity liners are placed on the _____ of the cavity preparation.
    A. On the pulp B. Axial wall C. Gingival wall D. Deepest portion
  86.  
    Which dental dam instrument has a working end that is sharp projection used to provide holes in the dam?
    A. Clamp B. Forceps C. Punch D. Pliers
  87.  
    Palpectomy is the same as RCT
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  88.  
    Dental dam clamps are designed to be used on a specific tooth. One of the basic parts of the clamp is the arched metal joining the two jaws of the clamp together, called the ______.
    A. Point B. Bow C. Wings D. Hole
  89.  
    The most used matrix in an amalgam restoration is the ______.
    A. Strip B. Shell C. All the above D. Tofflemire
  90.  
    Which part of the tofflemire matrix retainer holds the ends of the matrix band in place in the diagonal slot?
    A. Head B. Short knob C. Sliding body D. None of the above
  91.  
    After the tofflemire matrix is assembled and positioned on the tooth, the band of the matrix should not extend more than _____ mm beyond the gingival margin.
    A. 2 B. 1.75 C. None of the above D. 1
  92.  
    Occlusal edge of the tofflemire matrix band should extend no more than ____ mm above the highest cusp.
    A. 1 B. 1.5 C. none of the above D. 2
  93.  
    BSI is a system requiring wearing personal protective equipment to prevent contact with all body fluids.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  94.  
    Employers must protect their employees from exposure to blood and OPIM during the time when employees are at work.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  95.  
    When a disinfecting solution meets all the claims listed and safety concerns are notes, the FDA will assign an EPA number that must appear on the label of the solution.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  96.  
    Microorganisms may be missed because they appear as a mist or dry clear on the surface that are touched.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  97.  
    When removing protective clothing, OSHA states that special care is to be taken with items that are considered potentially infectious.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  98.  
    _____ is the principal professional organization for dentistry in the US.
    A. CDC B. OSHA C. US public health services D. ADA
  99.  
    Name the agency that is part of the US public health services, a division of the US department of health and human services, and a source of many regulations.
    A. OSHA B. OPIM C. CDC D. ADA

When you're ready to print, just click this button: Make Print-Friendly

Quick Feedback for Knowledge Mouse

Want to suggest a feature? Report a problem? Suggest a correction? Please let Knowledge Mouse know below: