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What is the amoxicillin dosage and when should the patient take it?
A. 1000 mg 1hr. after dental work
B. 1000 mg 1hr, before and 1000 mg 1hr. after dental work
C. 2000 mg 1hr. after dental work
D. 2000 mg1hr. before dental work
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Cavity Classification for anterior teeth proximal surfaces is _______.
A. Class I
B. Class III
C. Class II
D. Class IV
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Labial Frenum attaches the upper lip to the anterior surface of the maxillary gingiva.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
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After the premature loss of primary tooth, which special fixed appliance is worn to maintain a space for the permanent tooth?
A. Bracket
B. Space maintainers
C. Headgear
D. Activator
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The patient records are: X-Rays, medical/dental health history form diagnostic models, personal information and _______.
A. Invice
B. Informed consents
C. Patient's chart
D. None of the above
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_____ means that the tooth is in a distal to normal position.
A. Linguoversion
B. Mesioversion
C. None of the above
D. Distoversion
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_____ means that the tooth is tipped toward the lip or cheek.
A. Labioversion
B. Torsoversion
C. Transversion
D. Linguoversion
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The system for calling off the condition of the mouth starts from tooth #______ and goes down tooth #______ for the lower arch and finishes at tooth #32.
A. #16, #17
B. #16, #32
C. #1, #17
D. #1, #32
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Upper left of the chart is patient's _____.
A. Maxillary Right
B. Maxillary Left
C. Mandibular Right
D. Mandibular Left
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_____ are placed in the contact area, forcing the teeth to spread to accommodate the orthodontic bands.
A. Ligatures
B. Brackets
C. Separators
D. Springs
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Pointed side of the wedge is placed towards the _______.
A. Gingival surface
B. Separtors
C. Occlusal surface
D. Gum
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when the vertical overlap of the maxillary teeth is greater than the incisor one third of the mandibular anterior teeth, this is called?
A. Overjet
B. Overbite
C. Underbite
D. Crossbite
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An abnormal horizontal distance between the labial surface of the mandibular anterior teeth and the labial surface of the maxillary anterior teeth is called?
A. overjet
B. Open bite
C. Cross bite
D. None of the above
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which of the following is not considered a removable appliance?
A. Headgear
B. Palatal expansion
C. Retainer
-
What is the normal human body temperature?
A. 98.6
B. 68.6
C. 89.6
D. 82.6
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Factors that cause pulse fluctuations are ______.
A. Body size
B. All off the above
C. Age
D. Physical activities
E. Stress
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Hyperventilation is high blood pressure.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
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Systolic pressure is the higher number and diastolic lower number.is the
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
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Which factors can initiate malformation in the unborn child.
A. Drugs
B. All of the above
C. Genetics
D. Environment
E. infections
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Fetal alcohol symptoms in an infant are a result of the mother.
A. Contracting infections
B. Being exposed to measles
C. Persisting in alcohol consumptions
D. None of the above
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What happens when patient's blood pressure reading is high?
A. Retake the BP after 15 min
B. Reschedule the appointment
C. Give patient blood pressure medication
D. Call 911
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Molar & premolar proximal surface cavities are called ______.
A. Class I
B. Class III
C. None of the above
D. Class II
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Enamel-forming cells are called?
A. Odontoblasts
B. Cementoblasts
C. Ameloblasts
D. none of the above
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What is the last development stage before eruption?
A. Initiation
B. Calcification
C. Attrition
D. proliferation
-
What is the final stage of the life cycle of the tooth?
A. Attrition
B. Proliferation
C. Initiation
D. Calcification
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Class Iv cavities are due to ______.
A. Not flossing every day
B. Cavities in between teeth
C. Attrition
D. All of the above
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The hardest living substance is the body is?
A. Enamel
B. Dentin
C. Cementum
D. None of the above
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Primary teeth may erupt with a covering over the enamel called Nasmyth's membrane.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
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Cementum is the bone-like tissue that covers the root portion of the tooth,
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
-
Alveolar Bone is composed of ______ that protects the teeth.
A. Spongy bone
B. Pulp
C. Ligament
D. Hard bone
-
Enamel is organic and it can regenerate itself.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
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The pulp is partially made from ______ cells from which connective tissue evolves.
A. Pulpitis
B. Fibroblasts
C. Dentinal
D. None of the above
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The pulp is damaged due to an injury, the tissue may become inflamed, causing.
A. Ulcer
B. Pulpitis
C. Fibroblasts
D. all of the above
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The ______ consists of portions of the tooth structure, supporting hard and soft dental tissues, and the alveolar bone.
A. Periodontium
B. Enamel
C. Alveolu
D. Cementum
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Mass of blood in the tissue is called?
A. Ulcer
B. Hematoma
C. Vesicle
D. Fistula
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Clinical examination consists of visual inspection of the patient's hard and soft tissue, palpation, checking TMJ, percussion which is ______ process.
A. Listening
B. Palpation
C. All of the above
D. Tapping
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Reversible pulpitis means the pulpal inflammation that may NOT be able to heal itself.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
-
What is the advantages of using a rubber dam?
A. All of the above
B. Provides better access
C. Provides better visibility
D. Prevents moisture
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What kind of safety precaution can be applied when placing a rubber dam clamp on the tooth.
A. Use 2x2
B. Tie a 12" piece of floss on the clamp
C. Use Rubber Dam Lubricant
D. None of the above
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On a dental radiograph, the radiopaque line, or _______ represents the thin compact alveolar bone lining the socket.
A. Alveolar crest
B. Lamina dura
C. Periodontal ligament
D. Alveolar process
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What is the difference between gingivectomy vs gingivoplasy?
A. Gingivectomy is the removal of soft tissue
B. gingivoplasty is the re-shaping of the tissue
C. All of the above
D. gingivectomy is done when periodontal pockets are untreatable
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______ mucosa flows into the tissue of the cheek, lips, and inside the floor of the mandible.
A. Circular
B. Apical
C. Alveolar
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Free gingiva is also known as _______.
A. Gingival sulcus
B. Stippled
C. Marginal
D. Attached
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The mucogingival junction is the line of demarcation between the ______ gingiva and _______ mucosa.
A. Attached, Alveolar
B. Free, Marginal
C. Interdental, Alveolar
D. None of the above
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The space between the unattached gingiva and the tooth is the _______.
A. Attached gingiva
B. Interdental gingiva
C. Marginal gingiva
D. Gingival sulcus
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What is the required length when placing a periodontal dressing?
A. Must extend at least one tooth on either side of the surgical site
B. At least 7 mm
C. The shorter the better
D. It should extend at least 2 teeth on either side of the surgical site
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In a healthy mouth, the gingival sulcus space would not exceed _______ millimeters in depth.
A. 3-5
B. 2-3
C. 3-4
D. 4-5
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Which dental specialty deals with the recognition, prevention, and treatment of malalignment and irregularities of the teeth, jaw and face.
A. Endodontics
B. orthodontics
C. Periodontics
D. Oral Surgery
-
The orthodontic team consists of the _________.
A. All of the above
B. Dentist
C. Receptionist and business staff
D. Laboratory technician
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When placing a periodontal dressing RDA must do the following _________.
A. Irrigate and dry the surgical site with 2X2 gauze
B. Apply Vaseline on sutures
C. Make sure the dressing doesn't extend no more than 2 mm apically or occlusally
D. All of the above
-
Which of the following is an ideal occlusion relationship?
A. Maxillary and mandibular teeth are in maximum contact and normally spaced
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. None of the above
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The established system for classifying malocclusion is called ______ classification.
A. Angle's
B. Class I
C. Pasteur's
D. None of the above
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When performing coronal polishing, RDAs should _______.
A. Never press the cup continuously against the tooth
B. All of the above
C. avoid polishing decalcified areas
D. Use pastes without fluoride when preparing for acid etching
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What is the treatment for Anaphylactic shock?
A. Apply oxygen
B. Administer Epinephrine injection
C. Ask when did the patient eat
D. Both A and B are correct
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What are the symptoms of anaphylactic shock?
A. Both A and B are correct
B. Skin reaction within 2-5 min
C. Respiratory reaction
D. Chest pain that radiates to left shoulder and arm
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What are the symptoms for syncope?
A. All of the above
B. Fainting
C. Anxiety
D. Dizziness
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If patient lost vital signs what is it the first thing one needs to do before administering CPR?
A. Both B and C are correct
B. Find someone who can administer CPR
C. Call 911 first if there is no one to call
D. Tell someone to call
E. Both A and B are correct
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Nonmaleficence is an ethical principle that states _________.
A. Professional have a duty to protect the patient from short- or long-term harm
B. Keep skill current
C. Know one's limitations and when to refer to a specialist
D. All of the above
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Veracity is truthfulness and it protects from overbilling, waiver of copay, and misrepresntation
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
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When a wall is not available, the operator should be standing at least _______.
A. At least 6-8 feet from x-ray head
B. 2 feet from the x-ray head
C. At least 10 feet from the x-ray head
D. None of the above
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What are the real Hazards of radiation?
A. Primary radiation
B. Secondary radiation
C. A and B are correct
D. Chemical hazards
-
What color is the oxygen storage cylinder?
A. Green
B. Yellow
C. Red
D. Blue
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Broaches are used to ______.
A. Remove the pulpal tissue
B. Enlarge canals of the tooth
C. Dry the canals
-
Paper points need to remain in the canal for at least ______.
A. 1 minute
B. 3 minutes
C. A and B are correct
D. None of the above
-
HIV virus appears to attach itself to a cell in the immune system called T-4 Lymphocyte.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
-
Which custom-made matrix is designed and used on primary teeth?
A. tofflemire
B. T-band
C. Spot-welded
D. Stainless steel crown
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If the band of the matrix is positioned left, then it can be used for the _______ quadrant(s).
A. A and B are correct
B. Upper left quadrant
C. Lower right quadrant
D. Upper right quadrant
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For the young permanent teeth, a pulpotomy maintains pulp vitality and allows enough time for the root end to develop and close. In these cases, the treatment is called?
A. Apexogensis
B. Direct pulp capping
C. Pulpectomy
D. Avulsed
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Which condition occurs when the teeth are forcibly driven into alveolus so the only a portion of the crown is visible?
A. Displaced tooth
B. Traumatic intrusion
C. Avulsed tooth
D. None of the above
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Health care workers should be screened by a skin for active TB upon employment and at least yearly during employment.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
-
Dentists should report suspicious signs of child abuse to a ________.
A. Social service agency
B. Local police department
C. Child protective services
D. All of the above
-
Which of the following apply to sealants?
A. Prevent tooth decay
B. It's cosmetic
C. A and B are correct
D. It's a procedure to treat cavities
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Sealants are placed and the patient is instructed to have them checked once every ______.
A. 2 years
B. 5 years
C. None of the above
D. 6 months- a year
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The enamel surface is etched in preparation for sealant. Application time varies from _____.
A. 30-60 seconds
B. 30-90 seconds
C. 5 minutes
D. 15-30 seconds
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_____ sealant material is known as self-cure or auto polymerization.
A. Light-cured
B. Chemically cured
C. Surgical
D. Mechanical
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The height when holding the curing light is _______ mm directly above the occlusal surface.
A. 2
B. 6
C. 4
D. 8
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Keeping the sealant procedure area dry is accomplished by?
A. Asking the patient to keep the tongue still
B. Placing cotton rolls on both the buccal and lingual of the working tooth
C. All of the above
D. Using rubber dam
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The application of Pit & Fissure sealant is performed by _______.
A. A dentist
B. RDAEF
C. Dental Assistant
D. A, B and D
E. Registered Dental Hygienist (RDHEF)
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In 1992, OSHA established the bloodborne pathogens standard, which mandates that facilities much do which of the following?
A. All the above
B. Protect workers from infection hazards
C. Protect workers from chemical hazards
D. Protect workers from physical hazards
-
Which material dominates the field of aesthetic restorations?
A. Glass ionomer
B. Bonding agents
C. Polycarboxylate
D. Composite
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____ gloves are used for patient treatment whenever the dental assistant anticipates contract with saliva or blood.
A. Utility
B. Nitrile
C. Vinyl
D. Poly Nitrile
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____ dental cement cures by a chemical reaction between two materials.
A. Self-curing
B. Light curing
C. Non curing
D. Heat-curing
-
Which of the following is a high-level disinfectant?
A. Alcohol
B. Glutaraldehyde
C. Iodophor
D. All the above
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A _____ is used to condense the base into place on the floor of the cavity.
A. Explorer
B. Spoon excavator
C. Plastic filing
D. large spoon excavator
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Cavity liners are placed on the _____ of the cavity preparation.
A. On the pulp
B. Axial wall
C. Gingival wall
D. Deepest portion
-
Which dental dam instrument has a working end that is sharp projection used to provide holes in the dam?
A. Clamp
B. Forceps
C. Punch
D. Pliers
-
Palpectomy is the same as RCT
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
-
Dental dam clamps are designed to be used on a specific tooth. One of the basic parts of the clamp is the arched metal joining the two jaws of the clamp together, called the ______.
A. Point
B. Bow
C. Wings
D. Hole
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The most used matrix in an amalgam restoration is the ______.
A. Strip
B. Shell
C. All the above
D. Tofflemire
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Which part of the tofflemire matrix retainer holds the ends of the matrix band in place in the diagonal slot?
A. Head
B. Short knob
C. Sliding body
D. None of the above
-
After the tofflemire matrix is assembled and positioned on the tooth, the band of the matrix should not extend more than _____ mm beyond the gingival margin.
A. 2
B. 1.75
C. None of the above
D. 1
-
Occlusal edge of the tofflemire matrix band should extend no more than ____ mm above the highest cusp.
A. 1
B. 1.5
C. none of the above
D. 2
-
BSI is a system requiring wearing personal protective equipment to prevent contact with all body fluids.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
-
Employers must protect their employees from exposure to blood and OPIM during the time when employees are at work.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
-
When a disinfecting solution meets all the claims listed and safety concerns are notes, the FDA will assign an EPA number that must appear on the label of the solution.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
-
Microorganisms may be missed because they appear as a mist or dry clear on the surface that are touched.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
-
When removing protective clothing, OSHA states that special care is to be taken with items that are considered potentially infectious.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
-
_____ is the principal professional organization for dentistry in the US.
A. CDC
B. OSHA
C. US public health services
D. ADA
-
Name the agency that is part of the US public health services, a division of the US department of health and human services, and a source of many regulations.
A. OSHA
B. OPIM
C. CDC
D. ADA