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RDA QUIZ

Created by Jessicarios2004

  1.  
    What is the amoxicillin dosage and when should the patient take it?
    A. 2000 mg1hr. before dental work B. 1000 mg 1hr. after dental work C. 1000 mg 1hr, before and 1000 mg 1hr. after dental work D. 2000 mg 1hr. after dental work
  2.  
    Cavity Classification for anterior teeth proximal surfaces is _______.
    A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV
  3.  
    Labial Frenum attaches the upper lip to the anterior surface of the maxillary gingiva.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  4.  
    After the premature loss of primary tooth, which special fixed appliance is worn to maintain a space for the permanent tooth?
    A. Bracket B. Headgear C. Space maintainers D. Activator
  5.  
    The patient records are: X-Rays, medical/dental health history form diagnostic models, personal information and _______.
    A. Invice B. Informed consents C. Patient's chart D. None of the above
  6.  
    _____ means that the tooth is in a distal to normal position.
    A. Linguoversion B. Distoversion C. Mesioversion D. None of the above
  7.  
    _____ means that the tooth is tipped toward the lip or cheek.
    A. Torsoversion B. Labioversion C. Transversion D. Linguoversion
  8.  
    The system for calling off the condition of the mouth starts from tooth #______ and goes down tooth #______ for the lower arch and finishes at tooth #32.
    A. #16, #17 B. #16, #32 C. #1, #17 D. #1, #32
  9.  
    Upper left of the chart is patient's _____.
    A. Maxillary Left B. Maxillary Right C. Mandibular Right D. Mandibular Left
  10.  
    _____ are placed in the contact area, forcing the teeth to spread to accommodate the orthodontic bands.
    A. Separators B. Ligatures C. Brackets D. Springs
  11.  
    Pointed side of the wedge is placed towards the _______.
    A. Occlusal surface B. Gingival surface C. Separtors D. Gum
  12.  
    when the vertical overlap of the maxillary teeth is greater than the incisor one third of the mandibular anterior teeth, this is called?
    A. Overjet B. Underbite C. Overbite D. Crossbite
  13.  
    An abnormal horizontal distance between the labial surface of the mandibular anterior teeth and the labial surface of the maxillary anterior teeth is called?
    A. Open bite B. overjet C. Cross bite D. None of the above
  14.  
    which of the following is not considered a removable appliance?
    A. Headgear B. Retainer C. Palatal expansion
  15.  
    What is the normal human body temperature?
    A. 68.6 B. 89.6 C. 82.6 D. 98.6
  16.  
    Factors that cause pulse fluctuations are ______.
    A. Body size B. All off the above C. Age D. Physical activities E. Stress
  17.  
    Hyperventilation is high blood pressure.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  18.  
    Systolic pressure is the higher number and diastolic lower number.is the
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  19.  
    Which factors can initiate malformation in the unborn child.
    A. Drugs B. Genetics C. Environment D. All of the above E. infections
  20.  
    Fetal alcohol symptoms in an infant are a result of the mother.
    A. Contracting infections B. Being exposed to measles C. Persisting in alcohol consumptions D. None of the above
  21.  
    What happens when patient's blood pressure reading is high?
    A. Reschedule the appointment B. Retake the BP after 15 min C. Give patient blood pressure medication D. Call 911
  22.  
    Molar & premolar proximal surface cavities are called ______.
    A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. None of the above
  23.  
    Enamel-forming cells are called?
    A. Odontoblasts B. Cementoblasts C. Ameloblasts D. none of the above
  24.  
    What is the last development stage before eruption?
    A. Initiation B. Attrition C. Calcification D. proliferation
  25.  
    What is the final stage of the life cycle of the tooth?
    A. Proliferation B. Attrition C. Initiation D. Calcification
  26.  
    Class Iv cavities are due to ______.
    A. Not flossing every day B. Attrition C. Cavities in between teeth D. All of the above
  27.  
    The hardest living substance is the body is?
    A. Dentin B. Cementum C. None of the above D. Enamel
  28.  
    Primary teeth may erupt with a covering over the enamel called Nasmyth's membrane.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  29.  
    Cementum is the bone-like tissue that covers the root portion of the tooth,
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  30.  
    Alveolar Bone is composed of ______ that protects the teeth.
    A. Pulp B. Ligament C. Hard bone D. Spongy bone
  31.  
    Enamel is organic and it can regenerate itself.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  32.  
    The pulp is partially made from ______ cells from which connective tissue evolves.
    A. Pulpitis B. Dentinal C. Fibroblasts D. None of the above
  33.  
    The pulp is damaged due to an injury, the tissue may become inflamed, causing.
    A. Ulcer B. Pulpitis C. Fibroblasts D. all of the above
  34.  
    The ______ consists of portions of the tooth structure, supporting hard and soft dental tissues, and the alveolar bone.
    A. Enamel B. Alveolu C. Periodontium D. Cementum
  35.  
    Mass of blood in the tissue is called?
    A. Ulcer B. Vesicle C. Hematoma D. Fistula
  36.  
    Clinical examination consists of visual inspection of the patient's hard and soft tissue, palpation, checking TMJ, percussion which is ______ process.
    A. Listening B. Palpation C. All of the above D. Tapping
  37.  
    Reversible pulpitis means the pulpal inflammation that may NOT be able to heal itself.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  38.  
    What is the advantages of using a rubber dam?
    A. Provides better access B. All of the above C. Provides better visibility D. Prevents moisture
  39.  
    What kind of safety precaution can be applied when placing a rubber dam clamp on the tooth.
    A. Use 2x2 B. Use Rubber Dam Lubricant C. None of the above D. Tie a 12" piece of floss on the clamp
  40.  
    On a dental radiograph, the radiopaque line, or _______ represents the thin compact alveolar bone lining the socket.
    A. Lamina dura B. Alveolar crest C. Periodontal ligament D. Alveolar process
  41.  
    What is the difference between gingivectomy vs gingivoplasy?
    A. Gingivectomy is the removal of soft tissue B. All of the above C. gingivoplasty is the re-shaping of the tissue D. gingivectomy is done when periodontal pockets are untreatable
  42.  
    ______ mucosa flows into the tissue of the cheek, lips, and inside the floor of the mandible.
    A. Circular B. Apical C. Alveolar
  43.  
    Free gingiva is also known as _______.
    A. Gingival sulcus B. Stippled C. Marginal D. Attached
  44.  
    The mucogingival junction is the line of demarcation between the ______ gingiva and _______ mucosa.
    A. Free, Marginal B. Attached, Alveolar C. Interdental, Alveolar D. None of the above
  45.  
    The space between the unattached gingiva and the tooth is the _______.
    A. Attached gingiva B. Gingival sulcus C. Interdental gingiva D. Marginal gingiva
  46.  
    What is the required length when placing a periodontal dressing?
    A. At least 7 mm B. The shorter the better C. It should extend at least 2 teeth on either side of the surgical site D. Must extend at least one tooth on either side of the surgical site
  47.  
    In a healthy mouth, the gingival sulcus space would not exceed _______ millimeters in depth.
    A. 3-5 B. 3-4 C. 4-5 D. 2-3
  48.  
    Which dental specialty deals with the recognition, prevention, and treatment of malalignment and irregularities of the teeth, jaw and face.
    A. Endodontics B. Periodontics C. Oral Surgery D. orthodontics
  49.  
    The orthodontic team consists of the _________.
    A. Dentist B. Receptionist and business staff C. Laboratory technician D. All of the above
  50.  
    When placing a periodontal dressing RDA must do the following _________.
    A. Irrigate and dry the surgical site with 2X2 gauze B. Apply Vaseline on sutures C. Make sure the dressing doesn't extend no more than 2 mm apically or occlusally D. All of the above
  51.  
    Which of the following is an ideal occlusion relationship?
    A. Class II B. Class III C. Maxillary and mandibular teeth are in maximum contact and normally spaced D. None of the above
  52.  
    The established system for classifying malocclusion is called ______ classification.
    A. Class I B. Pasteur's C. None of the above D. Angle's
  53.  
    When performing coronal polishing, RDAs should _______.
    A. All of the above B. Never press the cup continuously against the tooth C. avoid polishing decalcified areas D. Use pastes without fluoride when preparing for acid etching
  54.  
    What is the treatment for Anaphylactic shock?
    A. Apply oxygen B. Administer Epinephrine injection C. Both A and B are correct D. Ask when did the patient eat
  55.  
    What are the symptoms of anaphylactic shock?
    A. Both A and B are correct B. Skin reaction within 2-5 min C. Respiratory reaction D. Chest pain that radiates to left shoulder and arm
  56.  
    What are the symptoms for syncope?
    A. Fainting B. All of the above C. Anxiety D. Dizziness
  57.  
    If patient lost vital signs what is it the first thing one needs to do before administering CPR?
    A. Find someone who can administer CPR B. Call 911 first if there is no one to call C. Both B and C are correct D. Tell someone to call E. Both A and B are correct
  58.  
    Nonmaleficence is an ethical principle that states _________.
    A. Professional have a duty to protect the patient from short- or long-term harm B. All of the above C. Keep skill current D. Know one's limitations and when to refer to a specialist
  59.  
    Veracity is truthfulness and it protects from overbilling, waiver of copay, and misrepresntation
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  60.  
    When a wall is not available, the operator should be standing at least _______.
    A. 2 feet from the x-ray head B. At least 6-8 feet from x-ray head C. At least 10 feet from the x-ray head D. None of the above
  61.  
    What are the real Hazards of radiation?
    A. Primary radiation B. Secondary radiation C. Chemical hazards D. A and B are correct
  62.  
    What color is the oxygen storage cylinder?
    A. Yellow B. Green C. Red D. Blue
  63.  
    Broaches are used to ______.
    A. Remove the pulpal tissue B. Enlarge canals of the tooth C. Dry the canals
  64.  
    Paper points need to remain in the canal for at least ______.
    A. 3 minutes B. A and B are correct C. None of the above D. 1 minute
  65.  
    HIV virus appears to attach itself to a cell in the immune system called T-4 Lymphocyte.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  66.  
    Which custom-made matrix is designed and used on primary teeth?
    A. tofflemire B. Spot-welded C. T-band D. Stainless steel crown
  67.  
    If the band of the matrix is positioned left, then it can be used for the _______ quadrant(s).
    A. A and B are correct B. Upper left quadrant C. Lower right quadrant D. Upper right quadrant
  68.  
    For the young permanent teeth, a pulpotomy maintains pulp vitality and allows enough time for the root end to develop and close. In these cases, the treatment is called?
    A. Apexogensis B. Direct pulp capping C. Pulpectomy D. Avulsed
  69.  
    Which condition occurs when the teeth are forcibly driven into alveolus so the only a portion of the crown is visible?
    A. Traumatic intrusion B. Displaced tooth C. Avulsed tooth D. None of the above
  70.  
    Health care workers should be screened by a skin for active TB upon employment and at least yearly during employment.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  71.  
    Dentists should report suspicious signs of child abuse to a ________.
    A. Local police department B. Child protective services C. Social service agency D. All of the above
  72.  
    Which of the following apply to sealants?
    A. Prevent tooth decay B. It's cosmetic C. A and B are correct D. It's a procedure to treat cavities
  73.  
    Sealants are placed and the patient is instructed to have them checked once every ______.
    A. 2 years B. 5 years C. None of the above D. 6 months- a year
  74.  
    The enamel surface is etched in preparation for sealant. Application time varies from _____.
    A. 30-60 seconds B. 30-90 seconds C. 5 minutes D. 15-30 seconds
  75.  
    _____ sealant material is known as self-cure or auto polymerization.
    A. Light-cured B. Surgical C. Chemically cured D. Mechanical
  76.  
    The height when holding the curing light is _______ mm directly above the occlusal surface.
    A. 2 B. 6 C. 4 D. 8
  77.  
    Keeping the sealant procedure area dry is accomplished by?
    A. Asking the patient to keep the tongue still B. All of the above C. Placing cotton rolls on both the buccal and lingual of the working tooth D. Using rubber dam
  78.  
    The application of Pit & Fissure sealant is performed by _______.
    A. A dentist B. RDAEF C. Dental Assistant D. Registered Dental Hygienist (RDHEF) E. A, B and D
  79.  
    The try for the alginate impression material should be enough to include the _______.
    A. The maxillary tuberorsity B. Retromolar pad C. None of the above D. A and B are correct
  80.  
    What accelerates the alginate setting time?
    A. Warm water B. Cold water C. Fast mixing D. None of the above
  81.  
    An endodontist handles _____.
    A. Oral care in childern B. Removal of teeth C. Root canal therapy D. Removal of calculus
  82.  
    orthodontics is the specialty of performing.
    A. Straightening of the teeth B. Root canal therapy C. Extraction of 3rd molars D. Treatment of surrounding tissues
  83.  
    Instruments that penetrate soft tissue or bone are considered ________ instruments.
    A. Semi critical B. Noncritical C. Disposable D. Critical
  84.  
    The specialty concerned with the diagnosis and treatment of the diseases of the supporting and surrounding tissue of the tooth is _______.
    A. Periodontics B. endodontics C. Orthodontics D. Pediatric dentistry
  85.  
    Patient sitting position during alginate impression should be ______.
    A. Supine position B. Upright position head slightly back C. All of the above D. Upright position head tilted slightly forward
  86.  
    Dental assistants should be aware of a demonstrating nonverbal communication. Which of the following expressions are considered nonverbal communication?
    A. facial expressions B. Tightening of hands on the chair arm C. All of the above D. Muffled noise made by the patient
  87.  
    Glutaraldehyde requires up to how many hours of continuous exposure?
    A. 2 hours B. 10 hours C. 30 minutes D. 6 hours
  88.  
    The HIPAA manual must include a job description for each employee.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  89.  
    The office manual must have a HIPPAA plan with dates of training for each employee.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  90.  
    To maintain security of personal health information, locks must be placed on all cabinets in the dental office.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  91.  
    The dental office does not have a right to charge for copying and transferring patient information.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  92.  
    OSHA training program is once a year during working hours.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  93.  
    The area of law that clearly defines moral judgment is ______.
    A. Civil law B. Ethics C. Criminal law D. Common law
  94.  
    Intrinsic stains are _______.
    A. Removable stains B. Extrinsic C. None of the above D. Not removable stains
  95.  
    What gives state guidelines for eligibility for licensing and identifies the grounds by which the license can be suspended or repealed?
    A. Dental jurisprudence B. Dental Practice act C. State board of dentistry D. Statutes
  96.  
    Delegated functions that require increased responsibility and skills are called.
    A. Dental jurisprudence B. Laws C. Extended function D. Contracts
  97.  
    When to perform CPR.
    A. When patient has shortness of breath B. When patient is conscious C. When patient lost vital signs D. None of the above
  98.  
    Black line stains are ______.
    A. Found on lingual B. It is more often found in females and in children C. Removal may require scaling D. All of the above
  99.  
    Binding agreement between 2 or more people is called ____.
    A. Agreement letter B. Contract C. Informed consent D. Tort
  100.  
    Exogenous stains originate from outside tooth and may be extrinsic or intrinsic.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  101.  
    Tobacco stains are _____.
    A. Extrinsic B. All of the above C. Exogenous D. Is yellow to almost black
  102.  
    What is the legal term used for situation in which a dentist fails to notify a patient that she or he can no longer provide services?
    A. Negligence B. Noncompliance C. Abandonment D. None of the above
  103.  
    The dentist and the dental team members have the responsibility and duty to perform due care in treating all patients. Failure to do this is called _______.
    A. Do good B. Defamation C. Abandonment D. Malpractice
  104.  
    Tort law protects an individual from causing injury to another person's reputation, name, or character. This injury is called _______.
    A. Fraud B. Assault C. Disrespect D. Defamation
  105.  
    The area of law covering any wrongful act that is breach is due care, and where injury has resulted from the action is called ________.
    A. Ethics B. Civil law C. Torts D. Malpractice
  106.  
    General term for the situations in which care is given without intent to do bodily harm and without compensation for this care is called?
    A. Tort B. Invasion of privacy C. Civil law D. Good Samaritan act
  107.  
    In 1992, OSHA established the bloodborne pathogens standard, which mandates that facilities much do which of the following?
    A. Protect workers from infection hazards B. All the above C. Protect workers from chemical hazards D. Protect workers from physical hazards
  108.  
    Which material dominates the field of aesthetic restorations?
    A. Glass ionomer B. Bonding agents C. Composite D. Polycarboxylate
  109.  
    ____ gloves are used for patient treatment whenever the dental assistant anticipates contract with saliva or blood.
    A. Vinyl B. Utility C. Nitrile D. Poly Nitrile
  110.  
    ____ dental cement cures by a chemical reaction between two materials.
    A. Light curing B. Non curing C. Heat-curing D. Self-curing
  111.  
    Which of the following is a high-level disinfectant?
    A. Alcohol B. Iodophor C. All the above D. Glutaraldehyde
  112.  
    A _____ is used to condense the base into place on the floor of the cavity.
    A. Plastic filing B. Explorer C. Spoon excavator D. large spoon excavator
  113.  
    Cavity liners are placed on the _____ of the cavity preparation.
    A. On the pulp B. Axial wall C. Deepest portion D. Gingival wall
  114.  
    Which dental dam instrument has a working end that is sharp projection used to provide holes in the dam?
    A. Clamp B. Forceps C. Pliers D. Punch
  115.  
    Palpectomy is the same as RCT
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  116.  
    Dental dam clamps are designed to be used on a specific tooth. One of the basic parts of the clamp is the arched metal joining the two jaws of the clamp together, called the ______.
    A. Point B. Wings C. Hole D. Bow
  117.  
    The most used matrix in an amalgam restoration is the ______.
    A. Tofflemire B. Strip C. Shell D. All the above
  118.  
    Which part of the tofflemire matrix retainer holds the ends of the matrix band in place in the diagonal slot?
    A. Head B. Short knob C. None of the above D. Sliding body
  119.  
    After the tofflemire matrix is assembled and positioned on the tooth, the band of the matrix should not extend more than _____ mm beyond the gingival margin.
    A. 2 B. 1 C. 1.75 D. None of the above
  120.  
    Occlusal edge of the tofflemire matrix band should extend no more than ____ mm above the highest cusp.
    A. 1 B. 1.5 C. 2 D. none of the above
  121.  
    BSI is a system requiring wearing personal protective equipment to prevent contact with all body fluids.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  122.  
    Employers must protect their employees from exposure to blood and OPIM during the time when employees are at work.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  123.  
    When a disinfecting solution meets all the claims listed and safety concerns are notes, the FDA will assign an EPA number that must appear on the label of the solution.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  124.  
    Microorganisms may be missed because they appear as a mist or dry clear on the surface that are touched.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  125.  
    When removing protective clothing, OSHA states that special care is to be taken with items that are considered potentially infectious.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  126.  
    _____ is the principal professional organization for dentistry in the US.
    A. CDC B. US public health services C. ADA D. OSHA
  127.  
    Name the agency that is part of the US public health services, a division of the US department of health and human services, and a source of many regulations.
    A. CDC B. OSHA C. OPIM D. ADA
Answer Key
Hide Answer Key

RDA QUIZ (Answer Key)

Created by Jessicarios2004

  1.  
    What is the amoxicillin dosage and when should the patient take it?
    A. 2000 mg1hr. before dental work B. 1000 mg 1hr. after dental work C. 1000 mg 1hr, before and 1000 mg 1hr. after dental work D. 2000 mg 1hr. after dental work
  2.  
    Cavity Classification for anterior teeth proximal surfaces is _______.
    A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV
  3.  
    Labial Frenum attaches the upper lip to the anterior surface of the maxillary gingiva.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  4.  
    After the premature loss of primary tooth, which special fixed appliance is worn to maintain a space for the permanent tooth?
    A. Bracket B. Headgear C. Space maintainers D. Activator
  5.  
    The patient records are: X-Rays, medical/dental health history form diagnostic models, personal information and _______.
    A. Invice B. Informed consents C. Patient's chart D. None of the above
  6.  
    _____ means that the tooth is in a distal to normal position.
    A. Linguoversion B. Distoversion C. Mesioversion D. None of the above
  7.  
    _____ means that the tooth is tipped toward the lip or cheek.
    A. Torsoversion B. Labioversion C. Transversion D. Linguoversion
  8.  
    The system for calling off the condition of the mouth starts from tooth #______ and goes down tooth #______ for the lower arch and finishes at tooth #32.
    A. #16, #17 B. #16, #32 C. #1, #17 D. #1, #32
  9.  
    Upper left of the chart is patient's _____.
    A. Maxillary Left B. Maxillary Right C. Mandibular Right D. Mandibular Left
  10.  
    _____ are placed in the contact area, forcing the teeth to spread to accommodate the orthodontic bands.
    A. Separators B. Ligatures C. Brackets D. Springs
  11.  
    Pointed side of the wedge is placed towards the _______.
    A. Occlusal surface B. Gingival surface C. Separtors D. Gum
  12.  
    when the vertical overlap of the maxillary teeth is greater than the incisor one third of the mandibular anterior teeth, this is called?
    A. Overjet B. Underbite C. Overbite D. Crossbite
  13.  
    An abnormal horizontal distance between the labial surface of the mandibular anterior teeth and the labial surface of the maxillary anterior teeth is called?
    A. Open bite B. overjet C. Cross bite D. None of the above
  14.  
    which of the following is not considered a removable appliance?
    A. Headgear B. Retainer C. Palatal expansion
  15.  
    What is the normal human body temperature?
    A. 68.6 B. 89.6 C. 82.6 D. 98.6
  16.  
    Factors that cause pulse fluctuations are ______.
    A. Body size B. All off the above C. Age D. Physical activities E. Stress
  17.  
    Hyperventilation is high blood pressure.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  18.  
    Systolic pressure is the higher number and diastolic lower number.is the
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  19.  
    Which factors can initiate malformation in the unborn child.
    A. Drugs B. Genetics C. Environment D. All of the above E. infections
  20.  
    Fetal alcohol symptoms in an infant are a result of the mother.
    A. Contracting infections B. Being exposed to measles C. Persisting in alcohol consumptions D. None of the above
  21.  
    What happens when patient's blood pressure reading is high?
    A. Reschedule the appointment B. Retake the BP after 15 min C. Give patient blood pressure medication D. Call 911
  22.  
    Molar & premolar proximal surface cavities are called ______.
    A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. None of the above
  23.  
    Enamel-forming cells are called?
    A. Odontoblasts B. Cementoblasts C. Ameloblasts D. none of the above
  24.  
    What is the last development stage before eruption?
    A. Initiation B. Attrition C. Calcification D. proliferation
  25.  
    What is the final stage of the life cycle of the tooth?
    A. Proliferation B. Attrition C. Initiation D. Calcification
  26.  
    Class Iv cavities are due to ______.
    A. Not flossing every day B. Attrition C. Cavities in between teeth D. All of the above
  27.  
    The hardest living substance is the body is?
    A. Dentin B. Cementum C. None of the above D. Enamel
  28.  
    Primary teeth may erupt with a covering over the enamel called Nasmyth's membrane.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  29.  
    Cementum is the bone-like tissue that covers the root portion of the tooth,
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  30.  
    Alveolar Bone is composed of ______ that protects the teeth.
    A. Pulp B. Ligament C. Hard bone D. Spongy bone
  31.  
    Enamel is organic and it can regenerate itself.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  32.  
    The pulp is partially made from ______ cells from which connective tissue evolves.
    A. Pulpitis B. Dentinal C. Fibroblasts D. None of the above
  33.  
    The pulp is damaged due to an injury, the tissue may become inflamed, causing.
    A. Ulcer B. Pulpitis C. Fibroblasts D. all of the above
  34.  
    The ______ consists of portions of the tooth structure, supporting hard and soft dental tissues, and the alveolar bone.
    A. Enamel B. Alveolu C. Periodontium D. Cementum
  35.  
    Mass of blood in the tissue is called?
    A. Ulcer B. Vesicle C. Hematoma D. Fistula
  36.  
    Clinical examination consists of visual inspection of the patient's hard and soft tissue, palpation, checking TMJ, percussion which is ______ process.
    A. Listening B. Palpation C. All of the above D. Tapping
  37.  
    Reversible pulpitis means the pulpal inflammation that may NOT be able to heal itself.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  38.  
    What is the advantages of using a rubber dam?
    A. Provides better access B. All of the above C. Provides better visibility D. Prevents moisture
  39.  
    What kind of safety precaution can be applied when placing a rubber dam clamp on the tooth.
    A. Use 2x2 B. Use Rubber Dam Lubricant C. None of the above D. Tie a 12" piece of floss on the clamp
  40.  
    On a dental radiograph, the radiopaque line, or _______ represents the thin compact alveolar bone lining the socket.
    A. Lamina dura B. Alveolar crest C. Periodontal ligament D. Alveolar process
  41.  
    What is the difference between gingivectomy vs gingivoplasy?
    A. Gingivectomy is the removal of soft tissue B. All of the above C. gingivoplasty is the re-shaping of the tissue D. gingivectomy is done when periodontal pockets are untreatable
  42.  
    ______ mucosa flows into the tissue of the cheek, lips, and inside the floor of the mandible.
    A. Circular B. Apical C. Alveolar
  43.  
    Free gingiva is also known as _______.
    A. Gingival sulcus B. Stippled C. Marginal D. Attached
  44.  
    The mucogingival junction is the line of demarcation between the ______ gingiva and _______ mucosa.
    A. Free, Marginal B. Attached, Alveolar C. Interdental, Alveolar D. None of the above
  45.  
    The space between the unattached gingiva and the tooth is the _______.
    A. Attached gingiva B. Gingival sulcus C. Interdental gingiva D. Marginal gingiva
  46.  
    What is the required length when placing a periodontal dressing?
    A. At least 7 mm B. The shorter the better C. It should extend at least 2 teeth on either side of the surgical site D. Must extend at least one tooth on either side of the surgical site
  47.  
    In a healthy mouth, the gingival sulcus space would not exceed _______ millimeters in depth.
    A. 3-5 B. 3-4 C. 4-5 D. 2-3
  48.  
    Which dental specialty deals with the recognition, prevention, and treatment of malalignment and irregularities of the teeth, jaw and face.
    A. Endodontics B. Periodontics C. Oral Surgery D. orthodontics
  49.  
    The orthodontic team consists of the _________.
    A. Dentist B. Receptionist and business staff C. Laboratory technician D. All of the above
  50.  
    When placing a periodontal dressing RDA must do the following _________.
    A. Irrigate and dry the surgical site with 2X2 gauze B. Apply Vaseline on sutures C. Make sure the dressing doesn't extend no more than 2 mm apically or occlusally D. All of the above
  51.  
    Which of the following is an ideal occlusion relationship?
    A. Class II B. Class III C. Maxillary and mandibular teeth are in maximum contact and normally spaced D. None of the above
  52.  
    The established system for classifying malocclusion is called ______ classification.
    A. Class I B. Pasteur's C. None of the above D. Angle's
  53.  
    When performing coronal polishing, RDAs should _______.
    A. All of the above B. Never press the cup continuously against the tooth C. avoid polishing decalcified areas D. Use pastes without fluoride when preparing for acid etching
  54.  
    What is the treatment for Anaphylactic shock?
    A. Apply oxygen B. Administer Epinephrine injection C. Both A and B are correct D. Ask when did the patient eat
  55.  
    What are the symptoms of anaphylactic shock?
    A. Both A and B are correct B. Skin reaction within 2-5 min C. Respiratory reaction D. Chest pain that radiates to left shoulder and arm
  56.  
    What are the symptoms for syncope?
    A. Fainting B. All of the above C. Anxiety D. Dizziness
  57.  
    If patient lost vital signs what is it the first thing one needs to do before administering CPR?
    A. Find someone who can administer CPR B. Call 911 first if there is no one to call C. Both B and C are correct D. Tell someone to call E. Both A and B are correct
  58.  
    Nonmaleficence is an ethical principle that states _________.
    A. Professional have a duty to protect the patient from short- or long-term harm B. All of the above C. Keep skill current D. Know one's limitations and when to refer to a specialist
  59.  
    Veracity is truthfulness and it protects from overbilling, waiver of copay, and misrepresntation
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  60.  
    When a wall is not available, the operator should be standing at least _______.
    A. 2 feet from the x-ray head B. At least 6-8 feet from x-ray head C. At least 10 feet from the x-ray head D. None of the above
  61.  
    What are the real Hazards of radiation?
    A. Primary radiation B. Secondary radiation C. Chemical hazards D. A and B are correct
  62.  
    What color is the oxygen storage cylinder?
    A. Yellow B. Green C. Red D. Blue
  63.  
    Broaches are used to ______.
    A. Remove the pulpal tissue B. Enlarge canals of the tooth C. Dry the canals
  64.  
    Paper points need to remain in the canal for at least ______.
    A. 3 minutes B. A and B are correct C. None of the above D. 1 minute
  65.  
    HIV virus appears to attach itself to a cell in the immune system called T-4 Lymphocyte.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  66.  
    Which custom-made matrix is designed and used on primary teeth?
    A. tofflemire B. Spot-welded C. T-band D. Stainless steel crown
  67.  
    If the band of the matrix is positioned left, then it can be used for the _______ quadrant(s).
    A. A and B are correct B. Upper left quadrant C. Lower right quadrant D. Upper right quadrant
  68.  
    For the young permanent teeth, a pulpotomy maintains pulp vitality and allows enough time for the root end to develop and close. In these cases, the treatment is called?
    A. Apexogensis B. Direct pulp capping C. Pulpectomy D. Avulsed
  69.  
    Which condition occurs when the teeth are forcibly driven into alveolus so the only a portion of the crown is visible?
    A. Traumatic intrusion B. Displaced tooth C. Avulsed tooth D. None of the above
  70.  
    Health care workers should be screened by a skin for active TB upon employment and at least yearly during employment.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  71.  
    Dentists should report suspicious signs of child abuse to a ________.
    A. Local police department B. Child protective services C. Social service agency D. All of the above
  72.  
    Which of the following apply to sealants?
    A. Prevent tooth decay B. It's cosmetic C. A and B are correct D. It's a procedure to treat cavities
  73.  
    Sealants are placed and the patient is instructed to have them checked once every ______.
    A. 2 years B. 5 years C. None of the above D. 6 months- a year
  74.  
    The enamel surface is etched in preparation for sealant. Application time varies from _____.
    A. 30-60 seconds B. 30-90 seconds C. 5 minutes D. 15-30 seconds
  75.  
    _____ sealant material is known as self-cure or auto polymerization.
    A. Light-cured B. Surgical C. Chemically cured D. Mechanical
  76.  
    The height when holding the curing light is _______ mm directly above the occlusal surface.
    A. 2 B. 6 C. 4 D. 8
  77.  
    Keeping the sealant procedure area dry is accomplished by?
    A. Asking the patient to keep the tongue still B. All of the above C. Placing cotton rolls on both the buccal and lingual of the working tooth D. Using rubber dam
  78.  
    The application of Pit & Fissure sealant is performed by _______.
    A. A dentist B. RDAEF C. Dental Assistant D. Registered Dental Hygienist (RDHEF) E. A, B and D
  79.  
    The try for the alginate impression material should be enough to include the _______.
    A. The maxillary tuberorsity B. Retromolar pad C. None of the above D. A and B are correct
  80.  
    What accelerates the alginate setting time?
    A. Warm water B. Cold water C. Fast mixing D. None of the above
  81.  
    An endodontist handles _____.
    A. Oral care in childern B. Removal of teeth C. Root canal therapy D. Removal of calculus
  82.  
    orthodontics is the specialty of performing.
    A. Straightening of the teeth B. Root canal therapy C. Extraction of 3rd molars D. Treatment of surrounding tissues
  83.  
    Instruments that penetrate soft tissue or bone are considered ________ instruments.
    A. Semi critical B. Noncritical C. Disposable D. Critical
  84.  
    The specialty concerned with the diagnosis and treatment of the diseases of the supporting and surrounding tissue of the tooth is _______.
    A. Periodontics B. endodontics C. Orthodontics D. Pediatric dentistry
  85.  
    Patient sitting position during alginate impression should be ______.
    A. Supine position B. Upright position head slightly back C. All of the above D. Upright position head tilted slightly forward
  86.  
    Dental assistants should be aware of a demonstrating nonverbal communication. Which of the following expressions are considered nonverbal communication?
    A. facial expressions B. Tightening of hands on the chair arm C. All of the above D. Muffled noise made by the patient
  87.  
    Glutaraldehyde requires up to how many hours of continuous exposure?
    A. 2 hours B. 10 hours C. 30 minutes D. 6 hours
  88.  
    The HIPAA manual must include a job description for each employee.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  89.  
    The office manual must have a HIPPAA plan with dates of training for each employee.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  90.  
    To maintain security of personal health information, locks must be placed on all cabinets in the dental office.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  91.  
    The dental office does not have a right to charge for copying and transferring patient information.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  92.  
    OSHA training program is once a year during working hours.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  93.  
    The area of law that clearly defines moral judgment is ______.
    A. Civil law B. Ethics C. Criminal law D. Common law
  94.  
    Intrinsic stains are _______.
    A. Removable stains B. Extrinsic C. None of the above D. Not removable stains
  95.  
    What gives state guidelines for eligibility for licensing and identifies the grounds by which the license can be suspended or repealed?
    A. Dental jurisprudence B. Dental Practice act C. State board of dentistry D. Statutes
  96.  
    Delegated functions that require increased responsibility and skills are called.
    A. Dental jurisprudence B. Laws C. Extended function D. Contracts
  97.  
    When to perform CPR.
    A. When patient has shortness of breath B. When patient is conscious C. When patient lost vital signs D. None of the above
  98.  
    Black line stains are ______.
    A. Found on lingual B. It is more often found in females and in children C. Removal may require scaling D. All of the above
  99.  
    Binding agreement between 2 or more people is called ____.
    A. Agreement letter B. Contract C. Informed consent D. Tort
  100.  
    Exogenous stains originate from outside tooth and may be extrinsic or intrinsic.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  101.  
    Tobacco stains are _____.
    A. Extrinsic B. All of the above C. Exogenous D. Is yellow to almost black
  102.  
    What is the legal term used for situation in which a dentist fails to notify a patient that she or he can no longer provide services?
    A. Negligence B. Noncompliance C. Abandonment D. None of the above
  103.  
    The dentist and the dental team members have the responsibility and duty to perform due care in treating all patients. Failure to do this is called _______.
    A. Do good B. Defamation C. Abandonment D. Malpractice
  104.  
    Tort law protects an individual from causing injury to another person's reputation, name, or character. This injury is called _______.
    A. Fraud B. Assault C. Disrespect D. Defamation
  105.  
    The area of law covering any wrongful act that is breach is due care, and where injury has resulted from the action is called ________.
    A. Ethics B. Civil law C. Torts D. Malpractice
  106.  
    General term for the situations in which care is given without intent to do bodily harm and without compensation for this care is called?
    A. Tort B. Invasion of privacy C. Civil law D. Good Samaritan act
  107.  
    In 1992, OSHA established the bloodborne pathogens standard, which mandates that facilities much do which of the following?
    A. Protect workers from infection hazards B. All the above C. Protect workers from chemical hazards D. Protect workers from physical hazards
  108.  
    Which material dominates the field of aesthetic restorations?
    A. Glass ionomer B. Bonding agents C. Composite D. Polycarboxylate
  109.  
    ____ gloves are used for patient treatment whenever the dental assistant anticipates contract with saliva or blood.
    A. Vinyl B. Utility C. Nitrile D. Poly Nitrile
  110.  
    ____ dental cement cures by a chemical reaction between two materials.
    A. Light curing B. Non curing C. Heat-curing D. Self-curing
  111.  
    Which of the following is a high-level disinfectant?
    A. Alcohol B. Iodophor C. All the above D. Glutaraldehyde
  112.  
    A _____ is used to condense the base into place on the floor of the cavity.
    A. Plastic filing B. Explorer C. Spoon excavator D. large spoon excavator
  113.  
    Cavity liners are placed on the _____ of the cavity preparation.
    A. On the pulp B. Axial wall C. Deepest portion D. Gingival wall
  114.  
    Which dental dam instrument has a working end that is sharp projection used to provide holes in the dam?
    A. Clamp B. Forceps C. Pliers D. Punch
  115.  
    Palpectomy is the same as RCT
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  116.  
    Dental dam clamps are designed to be used on a specific tooth. One of the basic parts of the clamp is the arched metal joining the two jaws of the clamp together, called the ______.
    A. Point B. Wings C. Hole D. Bow
  117.  
    The most used matrix in an amalgam restoration is the ______.
    A. Tofflemire B. Strip C. Shell D. All the above
  118.  
    Which part of the tofflemire matrix retainer holds the ends of the matrix band in place in the diagonal slot?
    A. Head B. Short knob C. None of the above D. Sliding body
  119.  
    After the tofflemire matrix is assembled and positioned on the tooth, the band of the matrix should not extend more than _____ mm beyond the gingival margin.
    A. 2 B. 1 C. 1.75 D. None of the above
  120.  
    Occlusal edge of the tofflemire matrix band should extend no more than ____ mm above the highest cusp.
    A. 1 B. 1.5 C. 2 D. none of the above
  121.  
    BSI is a system requiring wearing personal protective equipment to prevent contact with all body fluids.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  122.  
    Employers must protect their employees from exposure to blood and OPIM during the time when employees are at work.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  123.  
    When a disinfecting solution meets all the claims listed and safety concerns are notes, the FDA will assign an EPA number that must appear on the label of the solution.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  124.  
    Microorganisms may be missed because they appear as a mist or dry clear on the surface that are touched.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  125.  
    When removing protective clothing, OSHA states that special care is to be taken with items that are considered potentially infectious.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  126.  
    _____ is the principal professional organization for dentistry in the US.
    A. CDC B. US public health services C. ADA D. OSHA
  127.  
    Name the agency that is part of the US public health services, a division of the US department of health and human services, and a source of many regulations.
    A. CDC B. OSHA C. OPIM D. ADA

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