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RDA QUIZ

Created by Jessicarios2004

  1.  
    What is the amoxicillin dosage and when should the patient take it?
    A. 1000 mg 1hr. after dental work B. 1000 mg 1hr, before and 1000 mg 1hr. after dental work C. 2000 mg1hr. before dental work D. 2000 mg 1hr. after dental work
  2.  
    Cavity Classification for anterior teeth proximal surfaces is _______.
    A. Class III B. Class I C. Class II D. Class IV
  3.  
    Labial Frenum attaches the upper lip to the anterior surface of the maxillary gingiva.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  4.  
    After the premature loss of primary tooth, which special fixed appliance is worn to maintain a space for the permanent tooth?
    A. Bracket B. Headgear C. Space maintainers D. Activator
  5.  
    The patient records are: X-Rays, medical/dental health history form diagnostic models, personal information and _______.
    A. Informed consents B. Invice C. Patient's chart D. None of the above
  6.  
    _____ means that the tooth is in a distal to normal position.
    A. Distoversion B. Linguoversion C. Mesioversion D. None of the above
  7.  
    _____ means that the tooth is tipped toward the lip or cheek.
    A. Torsoversion B. Transversion C. Linguoversion D. Labioversion
  8.  
    The system for calling off the condition of the mouth starts from tooth #______ and goes down tooth #______ for the lower arch and finishes at tooth #32.
    A. #1, #17 B. #16, #17 C. #16, #32 D. #1, #32
  9.  
    Upper left of the chart is patient's _____.
    A. Maxillary Right B. Maxillary Left C. Mandibular Right D. Mandibular Left
  10.  
    _____ are placed in the contact area, forcing the teeth to spread to accommodate the orthodontic bands.
    A. Ligatures B. Brackets C. Springs D. Separators
  11.  
    Pointed side of the wedge is placed towards the _______.
    A. Occlusal surface B. Gingival surface C. Separtors D. Gum
  12.  
    when the vertical overlap of the maxillary teeth is greater than the incisor one third of the mandibular anterior teeth, this is called?
    A. Overbite B. Overjet C. Underbite D. Crossbite
  13.  
    An abnormal horizontal distance between the labial surface of the mandibular anterior teeth and the labial surface of the maxillary anterior teeth is called?
    A. Open bite B. Cross bite C. overjet D. None of the above
  14.  
    which of the following is not considered a removable appliance?
    A. Headgear B. Retainer C. Palatal expansion
  15.  
    What is the normal human body temperature?
    A. 68.6 B. 89.6 C. 98.6 D. 82.6
  16.  
    Factors that cause pulse fluctuations are ______.
    A. Body size B. Age C. All off the above D. Physical activities E. Stress
  17.  
    Hyperventilation is high blood pressure.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  18.  
    Systolic pressure is the higher number and diastolic lower number.is the
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  19.  
    Which factors can initiate malformation in the unborn child.
    A. Drugs B. Genetics C. All of the above D. Environment E. infections
  20.  
    Fetal alcohol symptoms in an infant are a result of the mother.
    A. Persisting in alcohol consumptions B. Contracting infections C. Being exposed to measles D. None of the above
  21.  
    What happens when patient's blood pressure reading is high?
    A. Retake the BP after 15 min B. Reschedule the appointment C. Give patient blood pressure medication D. Call 911
  22.  
    Molar & premolar proximal surface cavities are called ______.
    A. Class I B. Class III C. Class II D. None of the above
  23.  
    Enamel-forming cells are called?
    A. Ameloblasts B. Odontoblasts C. Cementoblasts D. none of the above
  24.  
    What is the last development stage before eruption?
    A. Initiation B. Calcification C. Attrition D. proliferation
  25.  
    What is the final stage of the life cycle of the tooth?
    A. Proliferation B. Initiation C. Attrition D. Calcification
  26.  
    Class VI cavities are due to ______.
    A. Not flossing every day B. Cavities in between teeth C. Attrition D. All of the above
  27.  
    The hardest living substance is the body is?
    A. Dentin B. Cementum C. None of the above D. Enamel
  28.  
    Primary teeth may erupt with a covering over the enamel called Nasmyth's membrane.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  29.  
    Cementum is the bone-like tissue that covers the root portion of the tooth,
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  30.  
    Alveolar Bone is composed of ______ that protects the teeth.
    A. Pulp B. Ligament C. Spongy bone D. Hard bone
  31.  
    Enamel is organic and it can regenerate itself.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  32.  
    The pulp is partially made from ______ cells from which connective tissue evolves.
    A. Pulpitis B. Dentinal C. Fibroblasts D. None of the above
  33.  
    The pulp is damaged due to an injury, the tissue may become inflamed, causing.
    A. Ulcer B. Fibroblasts C. Pulpitis D. all of the above
  34.  
    The ______ consists of portions of the tooth structure, supporting hard and soft dental tissues, and the alveolar bone.
    A. Periodontium B. Enamel C. Alveolu D. Cementum
  35.  
    Mass of blood in the tissue is called?
    A. Hematoma B. Ulcer C. Vesicle D. Fistula
  36.  
    Clinical examination consists of visual inspection of the patient's hard and soft tissue, palpation, checking TMJ, percussion which is ______ process.
    A. Listening B. Tapping C. Palpation D. All of the above
  37.  
    Reversible pulpitis means the pulpal inflammation that may NOT be able to heal itself.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  38.  
    What is the advantages of using a rubber dam?
    A. Provides better access B. All of the above C. Provides better visibility D. Prevents moisture
  39.  
    What kind of safety precaution can be applied when placing a rubber dam clamp on the tooth.
    A. Use 2x2 B. Use Rubber Dam Lubricant C. Tie a 12" piece of floss on the clamp D. None of the above
  40.  
    On a dental radiograph, the radiopaque line, or _______ represents the thin compact alveolar bone lining the socket.
    A. Alveolar crest B. Lamina dura C. Periodontal ligament D. Alveolar process
  41.  
    What is the difference between gingivectomy vs gingivoplasy?
    A. Gingivectomy is the removal of soft tissue B. All of the above C. gingivoplasty is the re-shaping of the tissue D. gingivectomy is done when periodontal pockets are untreatable
  42.  
    ______ mucosa flows into the tissue of the cheek, lips, and inside the floor of the mandible.
    A. Circular B. Alveolar C. Apical
  43.  
    Free gingiva is also known as _______.
    A. Gingival sulcus B. Stippled C. Attached D. Marginal
  44.  
    The mucogingival junction is the line of demarcation between the ______ gingiva and _______ mucosa.
    A. Attached, Alveolar B. Free, Marginal C. Interdental, Alveolar D. None of the above
  45.  
    The space between the unattached gingiva and the tooth is the _______.
    A. Attached gingiva B. Interdental gingiva C. Marginal gingiva D. Gingival sulcus
  46.  
    What is the required length when placing a periodontal dressing?
    A. At least 7 mm B. The shorter the better C. It should extend at least 2 teeth on either side of the surgical site D. Must extend at least one tooth on either side of the surgical site
  47.  
    In a healthy mouth, the gingival sulcus space would not exceed _______ millimeters in depth.
    A. 3-5 B. 3-4 C. 2-3 D. 4-5
  48.  
    Which dental specialty deals with the recognition, prevention, and treatment of malalignment and irregularities of the teeth, jaw and face.
    A. orthodontics B. Endodontics C. Periodontics D. Oral Surgery
  49.  
    The orthodontic team consists of the _________.
    A. All of the above B. Dentist C. Receptionist and business staff D. Laboratory technician
  50.  
    When placing a periodontal dressing RDA must do the following _________.
    A. Irrigate and dry the surgical site with 2X2 gauze B. All of the above C. Apply Vaseline on sutures D. Make sure the dressing doesn't extend no more than 2 mm apically or occlusally
  51.  
    Which of the following is an ideal occlusion relationship?
    A. Class II B. Class III C. None of the above D. Maxillary and mandibular teeth are in maximum contact and normally spaced
  52.  
    The established system for classifying malocclusion is called ______ classification.
    A. Class I B. Pasteur's C. Angle's D. None of the above
  53.  
    When performing coronal polishing, RDAs should _______.
    A. Never press the cup continuously against the tooth B. All of the above C. avoid polishing decalcified areas D. Use pastes without fluoride when preparing for acid etching
  54.  
    What is the treatment for Anaphylactic shock?
    A. Both A and B are correct B. Apply oxygen C. Administer Epinephrine injection D. Ask when did the patient eat
  55.  
    What are the symptoms of anaphylactic shock?
    A. Skin reaction within 2-5 min B. Respiratory reaction C. Both A and B are correct D. Chest pain that radiates to left shoulder and arm
  56.  
    What are the symptoms for syncope?
    A. Fainting B. All of the above C. Anxiety D. Dizziness
  57.  
    If patient lost vital signs what is it the first thing one needs to do before administering CPR?
    A. Find someone who can administer CPR B. Call 911 first if there is no one to call C. Tell someone to call D. Both A and B are correct E. Both B and C are correct
  58.  
    Nonmaleficence is an ethical principle that states _________.
    A. All of the above B. Professional have a duty to protect the patient from short- or long-term harm C. Keep skill current D. Know one's limitations and when to refer to a specialist
  59.  
    Veracity is truthfulness and it protects from overbilling, waiver of copay, and misrepresntation
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  60.  
    When a wall is not available, the operator should be standing at least _______.
    A. 2 feet from the x-ray head B. At least 6-8 feet from x-ray head C. At least 10 feet from the x-ray head D. None of the above
  61.  
    What are the real Hazards of radiation?
    A. Primary radiation B. Secondary radiation C. A and B are correct D. Chemical hazards
  62.  
    What color is the oxygen storage cylinder?
    A. Yellow B. Red C. Green D. Blue
  63.  
    Broaches are used to ______.
    A. Remove the pulpal tissue B. Enlarge canals of the tooth C. Dry the canals
  64.  
    Paper points need to remain in the canal for at least ______.
    A. 1 minute B. 3 minutes C. A and B are correct D. None of the above
  65.  
    HIV virus appears to attach itself to a cell in the immune system called T-4 Lymphocyte.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  66.  
    Which custom-made matrix is designed and used on primary teeth?
    A. T-band B. tofflemire C. Spot-welded D. Stainless steel crown
  67.  
    If the band of the matrix is positioned left, then it can be used for the _______ quadrant(s).
    A. Upper left quadrant B. A and B are correct C. Lower right quadrant D. Upper right quadrant
  68.  
    For the young permanent teeth, a pulpotomy maintains pulp vitality and allows enough time for the root end to develop and close. In these cases, the treatment is called?
    A. Direct pulp capping B. Pulpectomy C. Apexogensis D. Avulsed
  69.  
    Which condition occurs when the teeth are forcibly driven into alveolus so the only a portion of the crown is visible?
    A. Displaced tooth B. Traumatic intrusion C. Avulsed tooth D. None of the above
  70.  
    Health care workers should be screened by a skin for active TB upon employment and at least yearly during employment.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  71.  
    Dentists should report suspicious signs of child abuse to a ________.
    A. Local police department B. Social service agency C. Child protective services D. All of the above
  72.  
    Which of the following apply to sealants?
    A. It's cosmetic B. A and B are correct C. It's a procedure to treat cavities D. Prevent tooth decay
  73.  
    Sealants are placed and the patient is instructed to have them checked once every ______.
    A. 2 years B. 6 months- a year C. 5 years D. None of the above
  74.  
    The enamel surface is etched in preparation for sealant. Application time varies from _____.
    A. 30-60 seconds B. 30-90 seconds C. 15-30 seconds D. 5 minutes
  75.  
    _____ sealant material is known as self-cure or auto polymerization.
    A. Light-cured B. Surgical C. Chemically cured D. Mechanical
  76.  
    The height when holding the curing light is _______ mm directly above the occlusal surface.
    A. 6 B. 4 C. 2 D. 8
  77.  
    Keeping the sealant procedure area dry is accomplished by?
    A. Asking the patient to keep the tongue still B. Placing cotton rolls on both the buccal and lingual of the working tooth C. All of the above D. Using rubber dam
  78.  
    The application of Pit & Fissure sealant is performed by _______.
    A. A dentist B. RDAEF C. Dental Assistant D. A, B and D E. Registered Dental Hygienist (RDHEF)
  79.  
    The try for the alginate impression material should be enough to include the _______.
    A. The maxillary tuberorsity B. Retromolar pad C. None of the above D. A and B are correct
  80.  
    What accelerates the alginate setting time?
    A. Cold water B. Fast mixing C. Warm water D. None of the above
  81.  
    An endodontist handles _____.
    A. Oral care in childern B. Removal of teeth C. Root canal therapy D. Removal of calculus
  82.  
    Orthodontics is the specialty of performing.
    A. Straightening of the teeth B. Root canal therapy C. Extraction of 3rd molars D. Treatment of surrounding tissues
  83.  
    Instruments that penetrate soft tissue or bone are considered ________ instruments.
    A. Semi critical B. Critical C. Noncritical D. Disposable
  84.  
    The specialty concerned with the diagnosis and treatment of the diseases of the supporting and surrounding tissue of the tooth is _______.
    A. Periodontics B. endodontics C. Orthodontics D. Pediatric dentistry
  85.  
    Patient sitting position during alginate impression should be ______.
    A. Supine position B. Upright position head slightly back C. Upright position head tilted slightly forward D. All of the above
  86.  
    Dental assistants should be aware of a demonstrating nonverbal communication. Which of the following expressions are considered nonverbal communication?
    A. facial expressions B. Tightening of hands on the chair arm C. All of the above D. Muffled noise made by the patient
  87.  
    Glutaraldehyde requires up to how many hours of continuous exposure?
    A. 2 hours B. 30 minutes C. 6 hours D. 10 hours
  88.  
    The HIPAA manual must include a job description for each employee.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  89.  
    The office manual must have a HIPPAA plan with dates of training for each employee.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  90.  
    To maintain security of personal health information, locks must be placed on all cabinets in the dental office.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  91.  
    The dental office does not have a right to charge for copying and transferring patient information.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  92.  
    OSHA training program is once a year during working hours.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  93.  
    The area of law that clearly defines moral judgment is ______.
    A. Civil law B. Criminal law C. Ethics D. Common law
  94.  
    Intrinsic stains are _______.
    A. Removable stains B. Not removable stains C. Extrinsic D. None of the above
  95.  
    What gives state guidelines for eligibility for licensing and identifies the grounds by which the license can be suspended or repealed?
    A. Dental jurisprudence B. State board of dentistry C. Statutes D. Dental Practice act
  96.  
    Delegated functions that require increased responsibility and skills are called.
    A. Dental jurisprudence B. Laws C. Contracts D. Extended function
  97.  
    When to perform CPR.
    A. When patient has shortness of breath B. When patient is conscious C. None of the above D. When patient lost vital signs
  98.  
    Black line stains are ______.
    A. All of the above B. Found on lingual C. It is more often found in females and in children D. Removal may require scaling
  99.  
    Binding agreement between 2 or more people is called ____.
    A. Agreement letter B. Informed consent C. Contract D. Tort
  100.  
    Exogenous stains originate from outside tooth and may be extrinsic or intrinsic.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  101.  
    Tobacco stains are _____.
    A. Extrinsic B. Exogenous C. All of the above D. Is yellow to almost black
  102.  
    What is the legal term used for situation in which a dentist fails to notify a patient that she or he can no longer provide services?
    A. Negligence B. Noncompliance C. Abandonment D. None of the above
  103.  
    The dentist and the dental team members have the responsibility and duty to perform due care in treating all patients. Failure to do this is called _______.
    A. Do good B. Defamation C. Abandonment D. Malpractice
  104.  
    Tort law protects an individual from causing injury to another person's reputation, name, or character. This injury is called _______.
    A. Fraud B. Assault C. Disrespect D. Defamation
  105.  
    The area of law covering any wrongful act that is breach is due care, and where injury has resulted from the action is called ________.
    A. Torts B. Ethics C. Civil law D. Malpractice
  106.  
    General term for the situations in which care is given without intent to do bodily harm and without compensation for this care is called?
    A. Tort B. Invasion of privacy C. Civil law D. Good Samaritan act
  107.  
    In 1992, OSHA established the bloodborne pathogens standard, which mandates that facilities much do which of the following?
    A. All the above B. Protect workers from infection hazards C. Protect workers from chemical hazards D. Protect workers from physical hazards
  108.  
    Which material dominates the field of aesthetic restorations?
    A. Glass ionomer B. Bonding agents C. Polycarboxylate D. Composite
  109.  
    ____ gloves are used for patient treatment whenever the dental assistant anticipates contract with saliva or blood.
    A. Utility B. Nitrile C. Vinyl D. Poly Nitrile
  110.  
    ____ dental cement cures by a chemical reaction between two materials.
    A. Self-curing B. Light curing C. Non curing D. Heat-curing
  111.  
    Which of the following is a high-level disinfectant?
    A. Alcohol B. Glutaraldehyde C. Iodophor D. All the above
  112.  
    A _____ is used to condense the base into place on the floor of the cavity.
    A. Explorer B. Plastic filing C. Spoon excavator D. large spoon excavator
  113.  
    Cavity liners are placed on the _____ of the cavity preparation.
    A. On the pulp B. Axial wall C. Deepest portion D. Gingival wall
  114.  
    Which dental dam instrument has a working end that is sharp projection used to provide holes in the dam?
    A. Clamp B. Forceps C. Pliers D. Punch
  115.  
    Palpectomy is the same as RCT
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  116.  
    Dental dam clamps are designed to be used on a specific tooth. One of the basic parts of the clamp is the arched metal joining the two jaws of the clamp together, called the ______.
    A. Point B. Bow C. Wings D. Hole
  117.  
    The most used matrix in an amalgam restoration is the ______.
    A. Strip B. Shell C. All the above D. Tofflemire
  118.  
    Which part of the tofflemire matrix retainer holds the ends of the matrix band in place in the diagonal slot?
    A. Head B. Short knob C. Sliding body D. None of the above
  119.  
    After the tofflemire matrix is assembled and positioned on the tooth, the band of the matrix should not extend more than _____ mm beyond the gingival margin.
    A. 2 B. 1.75 C. None of the above D. 1
  120.  
    Occlusal edge of the tofflemire matrix band should extend no more than ____ mm above the highest cusp.
    A. 2 B. 1 C. 1.5 D. none of the above
  121.  
    BSI is a system requiring wearing personal protective equipment to prevent contact with all body fluids.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  122.  
    Employers must protect their employees from exposure to blood and OPIM during the time when employees are at work.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  123.  
    When a disinfecting solution meets all the claims listed and safety concerns are notes, the FDA will assign an EPA number that must appear on the label of the solution.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  124.  
    Microorganisms may be missed because they appear as a mist or dry clear on the surface that are touched.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  125.  
    When removing protective clothing, OSHA states that special care is to be taken with items that are considered potentially infectious.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  126.  
    _____ is the principal professional organization for dentistry in the US.
    A. OSHA B. CDC C. US public health services D. ADA
  127.  
    Name the agency that is part of the US public health services, a division of the US department of health and human services, and a source of many regulations.
    A. OSHA B. CDC C. OPIM D. ADA
  128.  
    Under VERACITY principle, the dentist _______.
    A. Need to treat the patient according to the patient's desire. B. Cannot abandon the patient. C. Should avoid interpersonal relationships. D. Has a duty to communicate truthfully.
  129.  
    Each patient has the right to know and understand any procedure that is performed. The form patients sign that indicates they understand and accept treatment is called _________.
    A. Written contract B. Implied contract C. Informed consent D. Implied consent
  130.  
    When the dentist sits down and the patient opens his or her mouth, what type of consent does this indicate?
    A. Informed consent form B. Expressed consent C. Implied
  131.  
    When providing care during an emergency, which of the following should you do first?
    A. Perform an assessment B. summon more advanced medical personnel C. None of the above D. Check for responsiveness
  132.  
    CPR should be performed on which of the following victims?
    A. one who is conscious and has an airway obstruction B. One who is having trouble breathing C. One who is in cardiac arrest D. One who responds to painful stimuli
  133.  
    A fulcrum is a finger rest used by a practitioner to stabilize the hand and reduce muscle stress while performing clinical procedures.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  134.  
    What is the first step of the Cardiac chain of survival?
    A. Early more advanced medical care B. Early recognition and access to the emergency medical C. Services (EMS) system D. None of the above E. Early CPR
  135.  
    You are providing care to a victim having a heart attack. What of the following would you do first?
    A. Loosen any tight clothing B. summon more advanced medical personnel C. Provide comfort to the victim D. Monitor the victim's appearance
  136.  
    When Performing chest compressions, how deeply should you compress the chest?
    A. At least 2 inches B. About 1/2 inch C. About 1 inch D. DO your best E. None of the above
  137.  
    You notice an unconscious adult who was pulled from the water is talking infrequent gasps. which of the following should you do?
    A. Being CPR B. Check for severe bleeding C. Give 2 initial ventilations D. Continue to monitor the victim's breathing closely
  138.  
    Gag reflex arears are the following:
    A. Back of the tongue B. Tonsils C. All of the above D. Back of the throat E. Soft palate
  139.  
    The frontal plane divides the body into left and right halves.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  140.  
    The dorsal cavity is in the anterior portion should be fitted for ______.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  141.  
    Children who are involved in contact sports should be fitted for _______.
    A. Removable space maintainers B. Fixed maintainers C. Night guards D. Mouth guards
  142.  
    What does blue color on Chemical Label represent?
    A. Flammability B. Instability C. Health D. The danger when exposed to skin
  143.  
    Which of the following planes divides the body into left and right halves.
    A. Frontal B. Trasverse C. Horizontal D. Sagittal
  144.  
    Which of the following planes divides the body into front and back sections?
    A. Transverse B. Horizontal C. Frontal D. Sagittal
  145.  
    The sterilization area of the dental office should be near the treatment room.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  146.  
    Dental treatment rooms are also called operatories.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  147.  
    A relined position with the nose and knees on the same plane may be called a supine position.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  148.  
    Removal of orthodontic bands is performed by ________.
    A. RDA B. Dentist C. DA D. Office Manager
  149.  
    AS a single rescuer you will do cycles of ________ compressions and ________ breaths.
    A. 30,2 B. 15,2 C. 100,2 D. 30,1
  150.  
    When preparing an alginate impression material, you need to add ________ to _________.
    A. Powder to water B. Water to powder C. It doesn't matter D. Both A and B are correct
  151.  
    The ______ should be well ventilated because of chemical fumes and exhaust from equipment.
    A. Sterilizing room B. Reception area C. Business area D. Treatment room
  152.  
    An exposure incident report must be taken by the ________.
    A. Office Manager B. RDA C. The dentist D. None of the above
  153.  
    Normal pulp range for a child is _______.
    A. 60-100 B. 30-60 C. 80-100 D. None of the above
  154.  
    The special needs patient is defined as a _____?
    A. Child patient B. Pregnant patient C. Hearing impaired patient D. All of the above
  155.  
    Smooth transfer of instruments and materials occurs when the assistant can anticipate the operator's need.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  156.  
    The assistant passes and receives instruments with the right hand when working with the right-handed dentist.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  157.  
    Using one hand for instrument transfer frees the other hand for evacuation.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  158.  
    The reverse palm thumb grasp is sometimes called the thumb to nose grasp.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  159.  
    The way an instrument is gasped also dictates how it is exchanged.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  160.  
    The pen grasp is used to hold instruments that have straight shanks.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  161.  
    The modified pen grasp provides more control and strength in some procedures.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  162.  
    Proper instrument transfer is accomplished when ________.
    A. The operators view remains on the oral cavity B. Safety and comfort are maintained for the patient C. Stress and fatigue for the operator and the assistant are reduced D. All of the above
  163.  
    Medical waste is handled in the following way:
    A. Needs to be placed in a plastic bag without a label B. None of the above C. Needs to be placed in a container and marked with the biohazard symbol that is colored orange or orange red
  164.  
    Periodontal dressing can be dipped in water to lose its stickiness before use.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  165.  
    During the placement of an IRM insulating base, the desired thickness should not exceed.
    A. 2mm B. 3mm C. 1mm D. 5mm
  166.  
    The _______ grasp is used to hold instrument that have angled shanks.
    A. Thumb B. Pen C. Modified pen D. palm
  167.  
    Acceptable products for hand hygiene is/are.
    A. Plain soap B. All of the above C. Alcohol D. Antimicrobial soap
  168.  
    The minimal handwashing before and after patient care requires _______ seconds.
    A. 60 B. 15 C. 30 D. 90
  169.  
    The ______ regulates the gloves used in the healthcare industry.
    A. EPA B. OSHA C. CDC D. FDA
  170.  
    What is the name of the agency that regulates disposal of hazardous after it leaves the office?
    A. CDC B. OSHA C. EPA D. FDA
  171.  
    What cycle is perpetuated when pathogens are allowed to pass from dentist to the patient or from patient to dentist?
    A. Material safety sheet B. Pathogen standard C. Cross contamination D. Standard exposure
  172.  
    If a dental assistant is hired, who is not immune to Hep B virus, who pays for the Hep B vaccine series?
    A. Assistant B. Dentist C. Accountant D. OSHA
  173.  
    Updating the patient's health history at each appointment is necessary. Information should be updated both in writing and ________.
    A. Fax transmission B. Over the phone C. Verbally D. Email
  174.  
    Patients could be infected with HBV and HIV and have no symptoms. This condition called?
    A. Cross contamination B. Antimicrobial C. Transient D. Asymptomatic
  175.  
    Clinicians should wash hands with either plain soap or antimicrobial hand wash at the beginning of the workday for 1 minute.Hands should also be washed when they are visibly soiled,after they have become contaminated,before glove donning,and after glove
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  176.  
    An employee who would have any occupational exposure to blood would be a category ______ by job classification.
    A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 1
  177.  
    Items in the dental office, such as sterilizers and PPE, are regulated by _______.
    A. ADA B. FDA C. EPA D. ADAA
  178.  
    The healing period for dry socket is usually within ______.
    A. 2-3 days B. 2 weeks C. 2 months D. None of the above
  179.  
    Removal of post extraction dressing is the duty of a Dental Assistant, under direct supervision.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  180.  
    Infiltration injection is mainly used on _______.
    A. Mandibular lower anterior teeth B. The mandibular arch C. As-needed basis D. The maxillary arch
  181.  
    Topical anesthesia is effective only on surface tissue 2-3 mm
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  182.  
    Materials that are placed directly in the cavity preparation (direct restorative materials) are kept in place by ________.
    A. Mechanical retention B. Chemical retention C. Viscosity D. Stress and stain
  183.  
    The ability of a material nto flow over a surface is called ______.
    A. Wettability B. Viscosity C. Luting D. Solubility
  184.  
    Dental cements are mixed to a precise ratio. Zinc phosphate cement has reached the ________ stage when the material follows the spatula about 1 inch above the mixing slab.
    A. Etching material B. Liner C. Putty D. Base
  185.  
    _____ is placed as a thin layer on the walls and floor of cavity preparation to protect the pulp from bacteria and irritants.
    A. Base B. Cement C. Liner D. Varnish
  186.  
    Bases are applied between the tooth and the restoration to protect the pulp.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  187.  
    One of the oldest cements, which comes in a powder/liquid from and is a luting and base cement, is called ________.
    A. Zinc oxide eugenol B. Zinc phosphate C. Polycarboxylate D. Glass ionomer
  188.  
    When zinc phosphate powder and liquid are mixed, a reaction occurs, and heat is released. The reaction is called ______.
    A. Exothermic B. Mechanical C. Chemical D. Light cure
  189.  
    When providing care to a conscious infant who is choking, which of the following is most appropriate?
    A. Giving 10 chest thrust then 10 back blows B. Positioning the infant so the head is lower than the chest C. Standing slightly behind the infant with one arm around chest D. Using the heel of your hand to give the chest thrusts
  190.  
    Bonding agents bond to all of the following except?
    A. Enamel B. Dentin C. Varnish D. Porcelain
  191.  
    Adhesion of dental materials to enamel is accomplished by _______.
    A. Chemical reaction B. Mechanical reaction C. All the above D. Acid etching
  192.  
    The specialty concerned with the diagnosis and treatment of the supporting and surrounding tissues of the tooth is ___________.
    A. Endodontics B. Orthodontics C. Pediatric dentistry D. Periodontics
  193.  
    Which procedure involves the complete removal of the dental pulp?
    A. Apexogenesis B. Pulpotomy C. Pulpectomy D. Pulp capping
Answer Key
Hide Answer Key

RDA QUIZ (Answer Key)

Created by Jessicarios2004

  1.  
    What is the amoxicillin dosage and when should the patient take it?
    A. 1000 mg 1hr. after dental work B. 1000 mg 1hr, before and 1000 mg 1hr. after dental work C. 2000 mg1hr. before dental work D. 2000 mg 1hr. after dental work
  2.  
    Cavity Classification for anterior teeth proximal surfaces is _______.
    A. Class III B. Class I C. Class II D. Class IV
  3.  
    Labial Frenum attaches the upper lip to the anterior surface of the maxillary gingiva.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  4.  
    After the premature loss of primary tooth, which special fixed appliance is worn to maintain a space for the permanent tooth?
    A. Bracket B. Headgear C. Space maintainers D. Activator
  5.  
    The patient records are: X-Rays, medical/dental health history form diagnostic models, personal information and _______.
    A. Informed consents B. Invice C. Patient's chart D. None of the above
  6.  
    _____ means that the tooth is in a distal to normal position.
    A. Distoversion B. Linguoversion C. Mesioversion D. None of the above
  7.  
    _____ means that the tooth is tipped toward the lip or cheek.
    A. Torsoversion B. Transversion C. Linguoversion D. Labioversion
  8.  
    The system for calling off the condition of the mouth starts from tooth #______ and goes down tooth #______ for the lower arch and finishes at tooth #32.
    A. #1, #17 B. #16, #17 C. #16, #32 D. #1, #32
  9.  
    Upper left of the chart is patient's _____.
    A. Maxillary Right B. Maxillary Left C. Mandibular Right D. Mandibular Left
  10.  
    _____ are placed in the contact area, forcing the teeth to spread to accommodate the orthodontic bands.
    A. Ligatures B. Brackets C. Springs D. Separators
  11.  
    Pointed side of the wedge is placed towards the _______.
    A. Occlusal surface B. Gingival surface C. Separtors D. Gum
  12.  
    when the vertical overlap of the maxillary teeth is greater than the incisor one third of the mandibular anterior teeth, this is called?
    A. Overbite B. Overjet C. Underbite D. Crossbite
  13.  
    An abnormal horizontal distance between the labial surface of the mandibular anterior teeth and the labial surface of the maxillary anterior teeth is called?
    A. Open bite B. Cross bite C. overjet D. None of the above
  14.  
    which of the following is not considered a removable appliance?
    A. Headgear B. Retainer C. Palatal expansion
  15.  
    What is the normal human body temperature?
    A. 68.6 B. 89.6 C. 98.6 D. 82.6
  16.  
    Factors that cause pulse fluctuations are ______.
    A. Body size B. Age C. All off the above D. Physical activities E. Stress
  17.  
    Hyperventilation is high blood pressure.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  18.  
    Systolic pressure is the higher number and diastolic lower number.is the
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  19.  
    Which factors can initiate malformation in the unborn child.
    A. Drugs B. Genetics C. All of the above D. Environment E. infections
  20.  
    Fetal alcohol symptoms in an infant are a result of the mother.
    A. Persisting in alcohol consumptions B. Contracting infections C. Being exposed to measles D. None of the above
  21.  
    What happens when patient's blood pressure reading is high?
    A. Retake the BP after 15 min B. Reschedule the appointment C. Give patient blood pressure medication D. Call 911
  22.  
    Molar & premolar proximal surface cavities are called ______.
    A. Class I B. Class III C. Class II D. None of the above
  23.  
    Enamel-forming cells are called?
    A. Ameloblasts B. Odontoblasts C. Cementoblasts D. none of the above
  24.  
    What is the last development stage before eruption?
    A. Initiation B. Calcification C. Attrition D. proliferation
  25.  
    What is the final stage of the life cycle of the tooth?
    A. Proliferation B. Initiation C. Attrition D. Calcification
  26.  
    Class VI cavities are due to ______.
    A. Not flossing every day B. Cavities in between teeth C. Attrition D. All of the above
  27.  
    The hardest living substance is the body is?
    A. Dentin B. Cementum C. None of the above D. Enamel
  28.  
    Primary teeth may erupt with a covering over the enamel called Nasmyth's membrane.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  29.  
    Cementum is the bone-like tissue that covers the root portion of the tooth,
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  30.  
    Alveolar Bone is composed of ______ that protects the teeth.
    A. Pulp B. Ligament C. Spongy bone D. Hard bone
  31.  
    Enamel is organic and it can regenerate itself.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  32.  
    The pulp is partially made from ______ cells from which connective tissue evolves.
    A. Pulpitis B. Dentinal C. Fibroblasts D. None of the above
  33.  
    The pulp is damaged due to an injury, the tissue may become inflamed, causing.
    A. Ulcer B. Fibroblasts C. Pulpitis D. all of the above
  34.  
    The ______ consists of portions of the tooth structure, supporting hard and soft dental tissues, and the alveolar bone.
    A. Periodontium B. Enamel C. Alveolu D. Cementum
  35.  
    Mass of blood in the tissue is called?
    A. Hematoma B. Ulcer C. Vesicle D. Fistula
  36.  
    Clinical examination consists of visual inspection of the patient's hard and soft tissue, palpation, checking TMJ, percussion which is ______ process.
    A. Listening B. Tapping C. Palpation D. All of the above
  37.  
    Reversible pulpitis means the pulpal inflammation that may NOT be able to heal itself.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  38.  
    What is the advantages of using a rubber dam?
    A. Provides better access B. All of the above C. Provides better visibility D. Prevents moisture
  39.  
    What kind of safety precaution can be applied when placing a rubber dam clamp on the tooth.
    A. Use 2x2 B. Use Rubber Dam Lubricant C. Tie a 12" piece of floss on the clamp D. None of the above
  40.  
    On a dental radiograph, the radiopaque line, or _______ represents the thin compact alveolar bone lining the socket.
    A. Alveolar crest B. Lamina dura C. Periodontal ligament D. Alveolar process
  41.  
    What is the difference between gingivectomy vs gingivoplasy?
    A. Gingivectomy is the removal of soft tissue B. All of the above C. gingivoplasty is the re-shaping of the tissue D. gingivectomy is done when periodontal pockets are untreatable
  42.  
    ______ mucosa flows into the tissue of the cheek, lips, and inside the floor of the mandible.
    A. Circular B. Alveolar C. Apical
  43.  
    Free gingiva is also known as _______.
    A. Gingival sulcus B. Stippled C. Attached D. Marginal
  44.  
    The mucogingival junction is the line of demarcation between the ______ gingiva and _______ mucosa.
    A. Attached, Alveolar B. Free, Marginal C. Interdental, Alveolar D. None of the above
  45.  
    The space between the unattached gingiva and the tooth is the _______.
    A. Attached gingiva B. Interdental gingiva C. Marginal gingiva D. Gingival sulcus
  46.  
    What is the required length when placing a periodontal dressing?
    A. At least 7 mm B. The shorter the better C. It should extend at least 2 teeth on either side of the surgical site D. Must extend at least one tooth on either side of the surgical site
  47.  
    In a healthy mouth, the gingival sulcus space would not exceed _______ millimeters in depth.
    A. 3-5 B. 3-4 C. 2-3 D. 4-5
  48.  
    Which dental specialty deals with the recognition, prevention, and treatment of malalignment and irregularities of the teeth, jaw and face.
    A. orthodontics B. Endodontics C. Periodontics D. Oral Surgery
  49.  
    The orthodontic team consists of the _________.
    A. All of the above B. Dentist C. Receptionist and business staff D. Laboratory technician
  50.  
    When placing a periodontal dressing RDA must do the following _________.
    A. Irrigate and dry the surgical site with 2X2 gauze B. All of the above C. Apply Vaseline on sutures D. Make sure the dressing doesn't extend no more than 2 mm apically or occlusally
  51.  
    Which of the following is an ideal occlusion relationship?
    A. Class II B. Class III C. None of the above D. Maxillary and mandibular teeth are in maximum contact and normally spaced
  52.  
    The established system for classifying malocclusion is called ______ classification.
    A. Class I B. Pasteur's C. Angle's D. None of the above
  53.  
    When performing coronal polishing, RDAs should _______.
    A. Never press the cup continuously against the tooth B. All of the above C. avoid polishing decalcified areas D. Use pastes without fluoride when preparing for acid etching
  54.  
    What is the treatment for Anaphylactic shock?
    A. Both A and B are correct B. Apply oxygen C. Administer Epinephrine injection D. Ask when did the patient eat
  55.  
    What are the symptoms of anaphylactic shock?
    A. Skin reaction within 2-5 min B. Respiratory reaction C. Both A and B are correct D. Chest pain that radiates to left shoulder and arm
  56.  
    What are the symptoms for syncope?
    A. Fainting B. All of the above C. Anxiety D. Dizziness
  57.  
    If patient lost vital signs what is it the first thing one needs to do before administering CPR?
    A. Find someone who can administer CPR B. Call 911 first if there is no one to call C. Tell someone to call D. Both A and B are correct E. Both B and C are correct
  58.  
    Nonmaleficence is an ethical principle that states _________.
    A. All of the above B. Professional have a duty to protect the patient from short- or long-term harm C. Keep skill current D. Know one's limitations and when to refer to a specialist
  59.  
    Veracity is truthfulness and it protects from overbilling, waiver of copay, and misrepresntation
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  60.  
    When a wall is not available, the operator should be standing at least _______.
    A. 2 feet from the x-ray head B. At least 6-8 feet from x-ray head C. At least 10 feet from the x-ray head D. None of the above
  61.  
    What are the real Hazards of radiation?
    A. Primary radiation B. Secondary radiation C. A and B are correct D. Chemical hazards
  62.  
    What color is the oxygen storage cylinder?
    A. Yellow B. Red C. Green D. Blue
  63.  
    Broaches are used to ______.
    A. Remove the pulpal tissue B. Enlarge canals of the tooth C. Dry the canals
  64.  
    Paper points need to remain in the canal for at least ______.
    A. 1 minute B. 3 minutes C. A and B are correct D. None of the above
  65.  
    HIV virus appears to attach itself to a cell in the immune system called T-4 Lymphocyte.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  66.  
    Which custom-made matrix is designed and used on primary teeth?
    A. T-band B. tofflemire C. Spot-welded D. Stainless steel crown
  67.  
    If the band of the matrix is positioned left, then it can be used for the _______ quadrant(s).
    A. Upper left quadrant B. A and B are correct C. Lower right quadrant D. Upper right quadrant
  68.  
    For the young permanent teeth, a pulpotomy maintains pulp vitality and allows enough time for the root end to develop and close. In these cases, the treatment is called?
    A. Direct pulp capping B. Pulpectomy C. Apexogensis D. Avulsed
  69.  
    Which condition occurs when the teeth are forcibly driven into alveolus so the only a portion of the crown is visible?
    A. Displaced tooth B. Traumatic intrusion C. Avulsed tooth D. None of the above
  70.  
    Health care workers should be screened by a skin for active TB upon employment and at least yearly during employment.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  71.  
    Dentists should report suspicious signs of child abuse to a ________.
    A. Local police department B. Social service agency C. Child protective services D. All of the above
  72.  
    Which of the following apply to sealants?
    A. It's cosmetic B. A and B are correct C. It's a procedure to treat cavities D. Prevent tooth decay
  73.  
    Sealants are placed and the patient is instructed to have them checked once every ______.
    A. 2 years B. 6 months- a year C. 5 years D. None of the above
  74.  
    The enamel surface is etched in preparation for sealant. Application time varies from _____.
    A. 30-60 seconds B. 30-90 seconds C. 15-30 seconds D. 5 minutes
  75.  
    _____ sealant material is known as self-cure or auto polymerization.
    A. Light-cured B. Surgical C. Chemically cured D. Mechanical
  76.  
    The height when holding the curing light is _______ mm directly above the occlusal surface.
    A. 6 B. 4 C. 2 D. 8
  77.  
    Keeping the sealant procedure area dry is accomplished by?
    A. Asking the patient to keep the tongue still B. Placing cotton rolls on both the buccal and lingual of the working tooth C. All of the above D. Using rubber dam
  78.  
    The application of Pit & Fissure sealant is performed by _______.
    A. A dentist B. RDAEF C. Dental Assistant D. A, B and D E. Registered Dental Hygienist (RDHEF)
  79.  
    The try for the alginate impression material should be enough to include the _______.
    A. The maxillary tuberorsity B. Retromolar pad C. None of the above D. A and B are correct
  80.  
    What accelerates the alginate setting time?
    A. Cold water B. Fast mixing C. Warm water D. None of the above
  81.  
    An endodontist handles _____.
    A. Oral care in childern B. Removal of teeth C. Root canal therapy D. Removal of calculus
  82.  
    Orthodontics is the specialty of performing.
    A. Straightening of the teeth B. Root canal therapy C. Extraction of 3rd molars D. Treatment of surrounding tissues
  83.  
    Instruments that penetrate soft tissue or bone are considered ________ instruments.
    A. Semi critical B. Critical C. Noncritical D. Disposable
  84.  
    The specialty concerned with the diagnosis and treatment of the diseases of the supporting and surrounding tissue of the tooth is _______.
    A. Periodontics B. endodontics C. Orthodontics D. Pediatric dentistry
  85.  
    Patient sitting position during alginate impression should be ______.
    A. Supine position B. Upright position head slightly back C. Upright position head tilted slightly forward D. All of the above
  86.  
    Dental assistants should be aware of a demonstrating nonverbal communication. Which of the following expressions are considered nonverbal communication?
    A. facial expressions B. Tightening of hands on the chair arm C. All of the above D. Muffled noise made by the patient
  87.  
    Glutaraldehyde requires up to how many hours of continuous exposure?
    A. 2 hours B. 30 minutes C. 6 hours D. 10 hours
  88.  
    The HIPAA manual must include a job description for each employee.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  89.  
    The office manual must have a HIPPAA plan with dates of training for each employee.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  90.  
    To maintain security of personal health information, locks must be placed on all cabinets in the dental office.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  91.  
    The dental office does not have a right to charge for copying and transferring patient information.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  92.  
    OSHA training program is once a year during working hours.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  93.  
    The area of law that clearly defines moral judgment is ______.
    A. Civil law B. Criminal law C. Ethics D. Common law
  94.  
    Intrinsic stains are _______.
    A. Removable stains B. Not removable stains C. Extrinsic D. None of the above
  95.  
    What gives state guidelines for eligibility for licensing and identifies the grounds by which the license can be suspended or repealed?
    A. Dental jurisprudence B. State board of dentistry C. Statutes D. Dental Practice act
  96.  
    Delegated functions that require increased responsibility and skills are called.
    A. Dental jurisprudence B. Laws C. Contracts D. Extended function
  97.  
    When to perform CPR.
    A. When patient has shortness of breath B. When patient is conscious C. None of the above D. When patient lost vital signs
  98.  
    Black line stains are ______.
    A. All of the above B. Found on lingual C. It is more often found in females and in children D. Removal may require scaling
  99.  
    Binding agreement between 2 or more people is called ____.
    A. Agreement letter B. Informed consent C. Contract D. Tort
  100.  
    Exogenous stains originate from outside tooth and may be extrinsic or intrinsic.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  101.  
    Tobacco stains are _____.
    A. Extrinsic B. Exogenous C. All of the above D. Is yellow to almost black
  102.  
    What is the legal term used for situation in which a dentist fails to notify a patient that she or he can no longer provide services?
    A. Negligence B. Noncompliance C. Abandonment D. None of the above
  103.  
    The dentist and the dental team members have the responsibility and duty to perform due care in treating all patients. Failure to do this is called _______.
    A. Do good B. Defamation C. Abandonment D. Malpractice
  104.  
    Tort law protects an individual from causing injury to another person's reputation, name, or character. This injury is called _______.
    A. Fraud B. Assault C. Disrespect D. Defamation
  105.  
    The area of law covering any wrongful act that is breach is due care, and where injury has resulted from the action is called ________.
    A. Torts B. Ethics C. Civil law D. Malpractice
  106.  
    General term for the situations in which care is given without intent to do bodily harm and without compensation for this care is called?
    A. Tort B. Invasion of privacy C. Civil law D. Good Samaritan act
  107.  
    In 1992, OSHA established the bloodborne pathogens standard, which mandates that facilities much do which of the following?
    A. All the above B. Protect workers from infection hazards C. Protect workers from chemical hazards D. Protect workers from physical hazards
  108.  
    Which material dominates the field of aesthetic restorations?
    A. Glass ionomer B. Bonding agents C. Polycarboxylate D. Composite
  109.  
    ____ gloves are used for patient treatment whenever the dental assistant anticipates contract with saliva or blood.
    A. Utility B. Nitrile C. Vinyl D. Poly Nitrile
  110.  
    ____ dental cement cures by a chemical reaction between two materials.
    A. Self-curing B. Light curing C. Non curing D. Heat-curing
  111.  
    Which of the following is a high-level disinfectant?
    A. Alcohol B. Glutaraldehyde C. Iodophor D. All the above
  112.  
    A _____ is used to condense the base into place on the floor of the cavity.
    A. Explorer B. Plastic filing C. Spoon excavator D. large spoon excavator
  113.  
    Cavity liners are placed on the _____ of the cavity preparation.
    A. On the pulp B. Axial wall C. Deepest portion D. Gingival wall
  114.  
    Which dental dam instrument has a working end that is sharp projection used to provide holes in the dam?
    A. Clamp B. Forceps C. Pliers D. Punch
  115.  
    Palpectomy is the same as RCT
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  116.  
    Dental dam clamps are designed to be used on a specific tooth. One of the basic parts of the clamp is the arched metal joining the two jaws of the clamp together, called the ______.
    A. Point B. Bow C. Wings D. Hole
  117.  
    The most used matrix in an amalgam restoration is the ______.
    A. Strip B. Shell C. All the above D. Tofflemire
  118.  
    Which part of the tofflemire matrix retainer holds the ends of the matrix band in place in the diagonal slot?
    A. Head B. Short knob C. Sliding body D. None of the above
  119.  
    After the tofflemire matrix is assembled and positioned on the tooth, the band of the matrix should not extend more than _____ mm beyond the gingival margin.
    A. 2 B. 1.75 C. None of the above D. 1
  120.  
    Occlusal edge of the tofflemire matrix band should extend no more than ____ mm above the highest cusp.
    A. 2 B. 1 C. 1.5 D. none of the above
  121.  
    BSI is a system requiring wearing personal protective equipment to prevent contact with all body fluids.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  122.  
    Employers must protect their employees from exposure to blood and OPIM during the time when employees are at work.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  123.  
    When a disinfecting solution meets all the claims listed and safety concerns are notes, the FDA will assign an EPA number that must appear on the label of the solution.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  124.  
    Microorganisms may be missed because they appear as a mist or dry clear on the surface that are touched.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  125.  
    When removing protective clothing, OSHA states that special care is to be taken with items that are considered potentially infectious.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  126.  
    _____ is the principal professional organization for dentistry in the US.
    A. OSHA B. CDC C. US public health services D. ADA
  127.  
    Name the agency that is part of the US public health services, a division of the US department of health and human services, and a source of many regulations.
    A. OSHA B. CDC C. OPIM D. ADA
  128.  
    Under VERACITY principle, the dentist _______.
    A. Need to treat the patient according to the patient's desire. B. Cannot abandon the patient. C. Should avoid interpersonal relationships. D. Has a duty to communicate truthfully.
  129.  
    Each patient has the right to know and understand any procedure that is performed. The form patients sign that indicates they understand and accept treatment is called _________.
    A. Written contract B. Implied contract C. Informed consent D. Implied consent
  130.  
    When the dentist sits down and the patient opens his or her mouth, what type of consent does this indicate?
    A. Informed consent form B. Expressed consent C. Implied
  131.  
    When providing care during an emergency, which of the following should you do first?
    A. Perform an assessment B. summon more advanced medical personnel C. None of the above D. Check for responsiveness
  132.  
    CPR should be performed on which of the following victims?
    A. one who is conscious and has an airway obstruction B. One who is having trouble breathing C. One who is in cardiac arrest D. One who responds to painful stimuli
  133.  
    A fulcrum is a finger rest used by a practitioner to stabilize the hand and reduce muscle stress while performing clinical procedures.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  134.  
    What is the first step of the Cardiac chain of survival?
    A. Early more advanced medical care B. Early recognition and access to the emergency medical C. Services (EMS) system D. None of the above E. Early CPR
  135.  
    You are providing care to a victim having a heart attack. What of the following would you do first?
    A. Loosen any tight clothing B. summon more advanced medical personnel C. Provide comfort to the victim D. Monitor the victim's appearance
  136.  
    When Performing chest compressions, how deeply should you compress the chest?
    A. At least 2 inches B. About 1/2 inch C. About 1 inch D. DO your best E. None of the above
  137.  
    You notice an unconscious adult who was pulled from the water is talking infrequent gasps. which of the following should you do?
    A. Being CPR B. Check for severe bleeding C. Give 2 initial ventilations D. Continue to monitor the victim's breathing closely
  138.  
    Gag reflex arears are the following:
    A. Back of the tongue B. Tonsils C. All of the above D. Back of the throat E. Soft palate
  139.  
    The frontal plane divides the body into left and right halves.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  140.  
    The dorsal cavity is in the anterior portion should be fitted for ______.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  141.  
    Children who are involved in contact sports should be fitted for _______.
    A. Removable space maintainers B. Fixed maintainers C. Night guards D. Mouth guards
  142.  
    What does blue color on Chemical Label represent?
    A. Flammability B. Instability C. Health D. The danger when exposed to skin
  143.  
    Which of the following planes divides the body into left and right halves.
    A. Frontal B. Trasverse C. Horizontal D. Sagittal
  144.  
    Which of the following planes divides the body into front and back sections?
    A. Transverse B. Horizontal C. Frontal D. Sagittal
  145.  
    The sterilization area of the dental office should be near the treatment room.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  146.  
    Dental treatment rooms are also called operatories.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  147.  
    A relined position with the nose and knees on the same plane may be called a supine position.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  148.  
    Removal of orthodontic bands is performed by ________.
    A. RDA B. Dentist C. DA D. Office Manager
  149.  
    AS a single rescuer you will do cycles of ________ compressions and ________ breaths.
    A. 30,2 B. 15,2 C. 100,2 D. 30,1
  150.  
    When preparing an alginate impression material, you need to add ________ to _________.
    A. Powder to water B. Water to powder C. It doesn't matter D. Both A and B are correct
  151.  
    The ______ should be well ventilated because of chemical fumes and exhaust from equipment.
    A. Sterilizing room B. Reception area C. Business area D. Treatment room
  152.  
    An exposure incident report must be taken by the ________.
    A. Office Manager B. RDA C. The dentist D. None of the above
  153.  
    Normal pulp range for a child is _______.
    A. 60-100 B. 30-60 C. 80-100 D. None of the above
  154.  
    The special needs patient is defined as a _____?
    A. Child patient B. Pregnant patient C. Hearing impaired patient D. All of the above
  155.  
    Smooth transfer of instruments and materials occurs when the assistant can anticipate the operator's need.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  156.  
    The assistant passes and receives instruments with the right hand when working with the right-handed dentist.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  157.  
    Using one hand for instrument transfer frees the other hand for evacuation.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  158.  
    The reverse palm thumb grasp is sometimes called the thumb to nose grasp.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  159.  
    The way an instrument is gasped also dictates how it is exchanged.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  160.  
    The pen grasp is used to hold instruments that have straight shanks.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  161.  
    The modified pen grasp provides more control and strength in some procedures.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  162.  
    Proper instrument transfer is accomplished when ________.
    A. The operators view remains on the oral cavity B. Safety and comfort are maintained for the patient C. Stress and fatigue for the operator and the assistant are reduced D. All of the above
  163.  
    Medical waste is handled in the following way:
    A. Needs to be placed in a plastic bag without a label B. None of the above C. Needs to be placed in a container and marked with the biohazard symbol that is colored orange or orange red
  164.  
    Periodontal dressing can be dipped in water to lose its stickiness before use.
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  165.  
    During the placement of an IRM insulating base, the desired thickness should not exceed.
    A. 2mm B. 3mm C. 1mm D. 5mm
  166.  
    The _______ grasp is used to hold instrument that have angled shanks.
    A. Thumb B. Pen C. Modified pen D. palm
  167.  
    Acceptable products for hand hygiene is/are.
    A. Plain soap B. All of the above C. Alcohol D. Antimicrobial soap
  168.  
    The minimal handwashing before and after patient care requires _______ seconds.
    A. 60 B. 15 C. 30 D. 90
  169.  
    The ______ regulates the gloves used in the healthcare industry.
    A. EPA B. OSHA C. CDC D. FDA
  170.  
    What is the name of the agency that regulates disposal of hazardous after it leaves the office?
    A. CDC B. OSHA C. EPA D. FDA
  171.  
    What cycle is perpetuated when pathogens are allowed to pass from dentist to the patient or from patient to dentist?
    A. Material safety sheet B. Pathogen standard C. Cross contamination D. Standard exposure
  172.  
    If a dental assistant is hired, who is not immune to Hep B virus, who pays for the Hep B vaccine series?
    A. Assistant B. Dentist C. Accountant D. OSHA
  173.  
    Updating the patient's health history at each appointment is necessary. Information should be updated both in writing and ________.
    A. Fax transmission B. Over the phone C. Verbally D. Email
  174.  
    Patients could be infected with HBV and HIV and have no symptoms. This condition called?
    A. Cross contamination B. Antimicrobial C. Transient D. Asymptomatic
  175.  
    Clinicians should wash hands with either plain soap or antimicrobial hand wash at the beginning of the workday for 1 minute.Hands should also be washed when they are visibly soiled,after they have become contaminated,before glove donning,and after glove
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  176.  
    An employee who would have any occupational exposure to blood would be a category ______ by job classification.
    A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 1
  177.  
    Items in the dental office, such as sterilizers and PPE, are regulated by _______.
    A. ADA B. FDA C. EPA D. ADAA
  178.  
    The healing period for dry socket is usually within ______.
    A. 2-3 days B. 2 weeks C. 2 months D. None of the above
  179.  
    Removal of post extraction dressing is the duty of a Dental Assistant, under direct supervision.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  180.  
    Infiltration injection is mainly used on _______.
    A. Mandibular lower anterior teeth B. The mandibular arch C. As-needed basis D. The maxillary arch
  181.  
    Topical anesthesia is effective only on surface tissue 2-3 mm
    A. FALSE B. TRUE
  182.  
    Materials that are placed directly in the cavity preparation (direct restorative materials) are kept in place by ________.
    A. Mechanical retention B. Chemical retention C. Viscosity D. Stress and stain
  183.  
    The ability of a material nto flow over a surface is called ______.
    A. Wettability B. Viscosity C. Luting D. Solubility
  184.  
    Dental cements are mixed to a precise ratio. Zinc phosphate cement has reached the ________ stage when the material follows the spatula about 1 inch above the mixing slab.
    A. Etching material B. Liner C. Putty D. Base
  185.  
    _____ is placed as a thin layer on the walls and floor of cavity preparation to protect the pulp from bacteria and irritants.
    A. Base B. Cement C. Liner D. Varnish
  186.  
    Bases are applied between the tooth and the restoration to protect the pulp.
    A. TRUE B. FALSE
  187.  
    One of the oldest cements, which comes in a powder/liquid from and is a luting and base cement, is called ________.
    A. Zinc oxide eugenol B. Zinc phosphate C. Polycarboxylate D. Glass ionomer
  188.  
    When zinc phosphate powder and liquid are mixed, a reaction occurs, and heat is released. The reaction is called ______.
    A. Exothermic B. Mechanical C. Chemical D. Light cure
  189.  
    When providing care to a conscious infant who is choking, which of the following is most appropriate?
    A. Giving 10 chest thrust then 10 back blows B. Positioning the infant so the head is lower than the chest C. Standing slightly behind the infant with one arm around chest D. Using the heel of your hand to give the chest thrusts
  190.  
    Bonding agents bond to all of the following except?
    A. Enamel B. Dentin C. Varnish D. Porcelain
  191.  
    Adhesion of dental materials to enamel is accomplished by _______.
    A. Chemical reaction B. Mechanical reaction C. All the above D. Acid etching
  192.  
    The specialty concerned with the diagnosis and treatment of the supporting and surrounding tissues of the tooth is ___________.
    A. Endodontics B. Orthodontics C. Pediatric dentistry D. Periodontics
  193.  
    Which procedure involves the complete removal of the dental pulp?
    A. Apexogenesis B. Pulpotomy C. Pulpectomy D. Pulp capping

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